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3794Re: [lxx] Did Jesus use the Septuagint?

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  • Robert Kraft
    Aug 1, 2012
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      Just a reminder on such questions. There was no "the LXX" in our sense
      of "Bible" -- and no "MT" -- in the first century. It was a scroll
      society, and while collections of scrolls may have existed in some
      places, it is quite anachronistic to think of traveling individuals
      having all those scrolls along. More appropriate would be to speak of
      book by book usage (did Jesus know the Greek Isaiah scroll, for
      example), or in many instances, of the use of excerpts. The "playing
      field" was quite different from what is often assumed.

      Bob Kraft, emeritus UPenn

      On 7/31/2012 8:55 PM, Ken Penner wrote:
      > Yes, the two questions are separate: (1) whether Jesus read the scriptures in Greek or Hebrew, and (2) whether the Gospel writers quoted from the Greek or Hebrew.
      > Regarding the question whether the Gospels quote from the Greek or Hebrew, there are some detailed data at http://mysite.verizon.net/rgjones3/Septuagint/spexecsum.htm
      > The answer there (to question 2) is that that the Gospel writers' quotes match the "Septuagint" more often than the Masoretic Text.
      > The answer to question 1 is less empirical, but depends on what languages Jesus would have used. We have evidence that he spoke Aramaic and/or Hebrew, but the evidence that he spoke Greek at all is flimsy (IMO).
      >
      >
      > Ken M. Penner, Ph.D.
      > Greek, Hebrew, Aramaic vocabulary memorization software:
      > http://purl.org/net/kmpenner/flash/
      > kpenner@...
      >
      >
      >
      > From: lxx@yahoogroups.com [mailto:lxx@yahoogroups.com] On Behalf Of abramkielsmeierjones
      > Sent: July-31-12 6:17 PM
      > To: lxx@yahoogroups.com
      > Subject: [lxx] Did Jesus use the Septuagint?
      >
      >
      >
      > The reading I'm doing is leading me to believe he did not (he spoke
      > Aramaic, etc.). I began to think and write otherwise here
      > <http://wp.me/p2muvc-5E> , but then posted updates to what I am now
      > afraid was a wrong-headed claim: namely, that Jesus used the Septuagint.
      >
      > I'm reading R.T. France and about to read Steve Moyise on the subject.
      > What I can see being concluded with certainty is that there are *some*
      > Gospel texts where the words the Gospel writer has Jesus saying agree
      > with the LXX against the MT (France lists a number of these)...
      > certainly not all cases, but that it does happen. But is this a
      > different thing than saying Jesus himself used the Septuagint?
      >
      > That's my thought, but any LXX vets on here that can offer me some
      > suggestions or even further resources on the topic would be great. I'm
      > new here, so my apologies if this has already been discussed on this
      > forum.
      >
      > Thanks,
      >
      > Abram Kielsmeier-Jones
      > ---------------------------
      > Abram K-J
      > Blog: Words on the Word <http://abramkj.wordpress.com/>
      > Septuagint <http://abramkj.wordpress.com/tag/septuagint/> posts-to-date
      >
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