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3538Re: Amen

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  • TOUJOURSPREST
    Dec 12, 2010
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      David,
      The use of amen in the Psalms seemed to be in a different way than concluding a prayer, as when it occurs with an expression of praise to the Lord (10 times). "Amen" is used after a baruch (praise) formula by the person speaking the formula (Ps 41:14; 72:19; 89:53) as well as all those who hear it (Ps 106:48; 1 Chron. 16:36; Neh 8:6). This type of praise-formula has a standard structure and always begins with the word Baruch: translated as "Blessed/Praised be....."

      Price

      --- In lxx@yahoogroups.com, David James <Jamesdm49@...> wrote:
      >
      > Price:
      >
      > You don't make any reference to the Psalms, and I don't know Hebrew.
      > However, if, as you assert, "Amen" is never used in the OT to conclude a
      > prayer, what is the Hebrew word used in the concluding verses of Psalms 40,
      > 71, 88 and 105 (LXX numbering)?
      >
      > David James
      >
      >
      > On Mon, Dec 6, 2010 at 10:59 PM, TOUJOURSPREST <toujoursprest@...>wrote:
      >
      > >
      > >
      > > I would appreciate help on the source of the word amen.
      > > The Hebrew word amen derives from the Hebrew 'a-mán, the primitive
      > > triliteral root is '-m-n . This triliteral root means to be firm, confirmed,
      > > reliable, faithful, have faith, believe. Grammarians list "amen" in Hebrew
      > > under its three consonants ('-m-n = aleph-mem-nun) The Hebrew letter ' aleph
      > > originally represented a glottal stop sound, which functioned as a
      > > consonant.
      > >
      > > I find two ways it is apparently not used in the Old Testament. First,
      > > "amen" is never used to conclude a prayer ...
      > >
      > >
      > >
      > >
      >
      >
      > [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
      >
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