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2199Re: [lxx] Example of Significantly Interpretive "translation"

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  • Sigrid Peterson
    Feb 13 11:47 AM
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      Would the alternate versions of Judges 5 "Song of Deborah" qualify? Neither is a
      very close translation, and one greatly mangles the poetic structure of the ancient
      Hebrew.

      Two other examples are not exactly LXX/OG translator issues, so much as they are
      apparent editorial differences. I'm referring to Jeremiah, which Emanuel Tov has
      called a separate edition of the text, IIRC (if I remember correctly), and Proverbs,
      which treats the material after Chapter 10 very, very loosely.

      Sigrid Peterson petersig@...

      > How about Jon 3.4 (40 or 3 days) ?
      >
      > On 2/13/07, JavaJedi2 <javajedi2@...> wrote:
      > >
      > > I'm looking for an example in the LXX where the translator either
      > > a) clearly did not understand the Hebrew, or b) better still, clearly
      > > changed the meaning from the extant Hebrew textx. Long ago, I worked
      > > on the Fourth Servant Song and thought I'd remembered that Isa 53:7-8
      > > in the LXX looked to me like the translator did not understand the
      > > Hebrew text very well but last night in looking at the NASB of Isa
      > > 53:7-8 and Brenton on the same passage, perhaps my original
      > > assessment, based upon reading the Hebrew and Greek myslf, was
      > > overstated. They seem pretty close in these translations at least.
      > >
      > > So does anyone know of a glaring example of where the translator
      > > not only was not woodenly literal, as in Genesis, but clearly doing
      > > interpretation (leaving aside the acknowledged fact that all
      > > translation involves interpretation)? Thanks.
      > >
      > > Ken Litwak
      > >
      > >
      > >
      >
      >
      >
      > --
      > Dr Philippe Guillaume
      > Stelserstrasse 478A
      > CH-7220 SCHIERS
      > Tel. +81 330 34 37
      >
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      > How about Jon 3.4 (40 or 3 days) ?<br><br>
      > <div><span class="gmail_quote">On 2/13/07, <b class="gmail_sendername">JavaJedi2</b> <<a href="mailto:javajedi2@...">javajedi2@...</a>> wrote:</span>
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      > <p>I'm looking for an example in the LXX where the translator either<br>a) clearly did not understand the Hebrew, or b) better still, clearly<br>changed the meaning from the extant Hebrew textx. Long ago, I worked<br>
      > on the Fourth Servant Song and thought I'd remembered that Isa 53:7-8<br>in the LXX looked to me like the translator did not understand the<br>Hebrew text very well but last night in looking at the NASB of Isa<br>53:7-8 and Brenton on the same passage, perhaps my original
      > <br>assessment, based upon reading the Hebrew and Greek myslf, was<br>overstated. They seem pretty close in these translations at least.<br><br>So does anyone know of a glaring example of where the translator<br>not only was not woodenly literal, as in Genesis, but clearly doing
      > <br>interpretation (leaving aside the acknowledged fact that all<br>translation involves interpretation)? Thanks.<br><br>Ken Litwak<br><br></p></div><span style="COLOR: white" width="1"></span> </div></blockquote></div><br><br clear="all"><br>-- <br>Dr Philippe Guillaume
      > <br>Stelserstrasse 478A<br>CH-7220 SCHIERS<br>Tel. +81 330 34 37
      >
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