2178Example of Significantly Interpretive "translation"
- Feb 12, 2007I'm looking for an example in the LXX where the translator either
a) clearly did not understand the Hebrew, or b) better still, clearly
changed the meaning from the extant Hebrew textx. Long ago, I worked
on the Fourth Servant Song and thought I'd remembered that Isa 53:7-8
in the LXX looked to me like the translator did not understand the
Hebrew text very well but last night in looking at the NASB of Isa
53:7-8 and Brenton on the same passage, perhaps my original
assessment, based upon reading the Hebrew and Greek myslf, was
overstated. They seem pretty close in these translations at least.
So does anyone know of a glaring example of where the translator
not only was not woodenly literal, as in Genesis, but clearly doing
interpretation (leaving aside the acknowledged fact that all
translation involves interpretation)? Thanks.
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