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1565Re: [LXX] 1st Chronicles 2:9

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  • Mike Oravecz
    Apr 4, 2005
    • 0 Attachment
      Regarding Rahlfs' Septuagint an online description says:
      "Note that this is not a critical text (e.g., there is only a brief critical apparatus). Rahlfs based his text primarily on codex Vaticanus, but when necessary (and in his own opinion based on established text-critical principles) he adopts readings found in codex Alexandrinus and codex Sinaiticus so as to represent as closely as possible the "Old Greek" version of the text (i.e., the "original" text)."
      Regarding Brenton's Septuagint:
      "The Greek text is based on codex Vaticanus, with Alexandrinus employed in a few spots where Vaticanus was mutilated -- these cases are listed in an appendix (some variants from Alexandrinus are also mentioned in the footnotes)."
      You need to check the Greek of at least these three sources. Presumable one of them has the added name.

      -----Original Message-----
      From: Dan King
      Sent: Apr 4, 2005 3:32 AM
      To: lxx@yahoogroups.com
      Subject: Re: [LXX] 1st Chronicles 2:9

      Without any particular evidence...I would suggest that the reading of Rahlfs is what is found in the major uncials upon which his edition depends. He may have thought it a Christian inerpolation, but he would not have introduced into the text a conjectural emendation of that sort without at least some ms evidence for it. Your best bet for further info would be the Gottingen edition of Chronicles.
      If you can get hold of supplements to Vetus Testamentum, vols 25,27 in that series are:The Greek Chronicles : the relation of the Septuagint of I and II Chronicles to the Massoretic text / by Leslie C. Allen. That might provide some clues...
      Dan King
      ----- Original Message -----
      From: "Chris Weimer" <cweb255@...>
      Sent: Sunday, April 03, 2005 10:42 PM
      Subject: Re: [LXX] 1st Chronicles 2:9

      > Well, I even though it matches Ralhf's, it just doesn't seem right... Almost
      > as if it was interpolated by Christians (which would explain the kai Aram, a
      > harmonization of the GkOT with Matthew). But wouldn't such an obvious
      > interpolation be eradicated in a real critical text? Thoughts?
      > Chris Weimer
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