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1446Re: Lucian's LXX

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  • Wieland Willker
    Nov 10, 2004
      For some reason my original reply got lost in the digital space, so here
      is another one. First let me thank you all for your helpful comments
      regarding my question about a possible majority text of the LXX.

      James Miller wrote:
      > My supposition is that the text of the miniscules should
      > be the same as that of the lectionaries, and that it was
      > standardized and thus became a majority owing to its
      > official sanction by the church and the fact that it was the
      > text read out at public worship.

      This is definitely wrong. The Byz text did not arise out of the
      lectionary text, it was the other way round. The lectionaries have a
      distinct text, which is basically Byzantine, that is correct, but it is
      a very late text.
      The Byzantine text originated not in the 10th CE, but at the end of the
      3rd CE. The earliest substantial copies we have are Codex W/032 and A/02
      (both 5th CE). The origin of the Byz text is one of the great mysteria
      in NT TC. There is much speculation, but no facts.

      From your answers regarding my question about a majority text of the LXX
      I take it that there is no such thing, not even a lectionary text of the
      LXX. This is very interesting since it is a significant difference to
      the NT. It cries for an explanation.
      Your suggestion "that there was no political or social force driving a
      standardization of the text" is not really convincing to me because it
      was originally the LXX that was tried to get standardized (Origen's
      Hexapla, Lucian).
      If really Lucian is responsible for the origin of the Byzantine text of
      the NT (we don't really know that), and he also did an LXX recension,
      why did his NT supplant everything (99% of all MSS are now basically
      Byzantine), but his LXX failed to make that impact? Perhaps the
      authority of Origen was too strong?
      On the other hand it is certainly possible that Lucian has nothing to do
      with the origin of the Byzantine text of the NT. This supposition then
      would remove the above problem.

      Btw. how many of all LXX MSS are now basically Lucianic? Have all the
      1500+ MSS been test-collated to check their type? How much do we know
      about LXX texttypes and groups? I am wondering if this has ever been
      checked systematically?

      Best wishes
      Wieland Willker, Bremen, Germany
      Textcritical commentary:
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