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15 results from messages in lambengolmor

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  • Recall also "Haysend" - where too "hay"="hedge". Lukas Beregond. Anders Stenström scripsit: > See Tolkien's _Guide to the Names_, Persons, _Hayward_: > "The word is derived from _hay_ 'fence' (_not_ 'grass') + > _ward_ 'guard'." (TC:168) > - Beregond > List guidelines: http://www.elvish.org/LambengolmorList/ > Bibliography and abbreviations: > http://www.elvish.org/Tengwestie...
    Lukáš Novák Nov 6, 2005
  • Ales Bican wrote: > I can hardly see motivation in the case of _targâ_ > Q _tarya_. I can think of 2 possible motivations: analogy, or getting the pronunciation nearer to the preceding dental/alveolar _r_ (_l_). Together with the attempt to retain the long syllable (which excludes just dropping the sound), because of its being stressed. Lukas
    Lukas Novak Jan 6, 2004
  • Andreas Johansson wrote: > I'd rather expect the words to syllabify as fel.ya and u.lun.do, > respectively, I rather agree - I did not mean to imply where exactly the syllable boundary lies. > Another possible internal explanation that struck me right now is that it > could simply be due to the different following vowel. > [Comparison of derivatives of Etym. WÔ- (Q _o-_/_ó-_) and...
    Lukas Novak Jan 6, 2004
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  • Andreas Johansson wrote: > (And yes, I'm aware of Q _ulundo_ < _ulgundô_, which raises > the question why we're not seeing **fela instead.) Perhaps because of the difference of the stress pattern? In "felga>felya" the "felg>fely" syllable is stressed, whereas in "ulgundo>ulundo" the "ulg>ul" syllable is not stressed? To me it makes sense - but who is me :-) ? Lukas
    Lukas Novak Jan 5, 2004
  • I have always supposed that the form _olor_ arose by analogy with the other cases (comp. Latin _honos_/_honor_) . This seems to me to be the most natural explanation. Lukas
    Lukas Novak Jan 3, 2004
  • Patrick H. Wynne wrote: > As for interpreting _telpingwe_ and _ulumpingwe_ as haplologies of > *_telpe-pingwe, *ulumpe-pingwe_, with *_pingwe_ meaning 'insect' -- > while hapolology would probably occur if these forms existed, there > are etymological problems with *_pingwe_. [...] I had in my mind something like PIK-ME > PINGWE - but I surmise this pattern is a feature of much...
    Lukas Novak Dec 25, 2003
  • David Kiltz wrote: > Why bother with syntax anyway, if we don't make a distinction? I'm not > trying to obscure an equation that doesn't exist but to illustrate a > difference. There was a rule in scholasticians' disputations that it was the task of the one who denied a distinction to prove the identity, not vice versa. The reason is that a false distinction does not produce any...
    Lukas Novak May 15, 2003
  • David Kiltz wrote: > A functional object, as I understand it, is the second participant of a > verbal sentence. Cf. "I (subj.) see you (obj.)". In a nominal sentence > there is no object (functionally or logically). "The lord is with thee" > is functionally the same as "Thou art with the Lord" or "The Lord and > thou art together" (with semantic nuances, but that's irrelevant at...
    Lukas Novak May 15, 2003
  • David Kiltz wrote: >>> languages may vary as to how they encode a prepositional >>> participant of a noun phrase (Semitic would use the genitive) >> >> Can you name any language(s) that would use the nominative (distinct >> from accusative)? (Don't say `Esperanto': that would be cheating.) > > As soon as languages use prepositions like Indo-European and Semitic, > no. Of course not...
    Lukas Novak May 15, 2003
  • David Kiltz wrote: > Well, a palato-dental, in my view, is a "palatalized" sound. Maybe they > were palato-alveolars or lamino-palatals (i.e. articulated at the same > place as e.g. English [sh and zh]). > At any rate an inventory with regular palatals + palato-dentals looks > very dubious. Please excuse my amateur query: Would the distinction between Polish c-acute or s-acute and...
    Lukas Novak Mar 17, 2003