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Typo(s) and note on VT 47

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  • David Kiltz
    Thank you for VT 47. Just two little comments: There is a typo, I think, on page 37, note 55 where the Sanskrit should read: _daks.inâ diç-_ (or _dik_
    Message 1 of 1 , Mar 6, 2005
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      Thank you for VT 47. Just two little comments:

      There is a typo, I think, on page 37, note 55 where the Sanskrit should
      read: _daks.in‚ diÁ-_ (or _dik_ (_diÁ-_)), i.e. with a _k_ instead of
      _c_ in _daks.in‚_. Next comes "_< dacs.in‚_ 'right, southern'". I think
      it should be _daks.ina-_ with a short last 'a' here as the word is a
      normal adjective and stands together both with masc. and fem. words.
      Unless, you're referring to _daks.in‚_ (old instrumental) 'on the
      right, south(ward from)'.

      [You are absolutely right, the Sanskrit forms in note 55 are in error.
      The note should read "Cp. Sanskrit _daks.in.‚-(diÁ-_) ësouthí <
      _daks.in.a-_ ëright, southerní", these being the forms as given in
      my source, Carl Darling Buck's _A Dictionary of Select Synonyms in
      the Principal Indo-European Languages_ (p. 873). An appalling slip
      on my part, for which I apologize to my readers! PHW]

      On page 31 Patrick Wynne notes the resemblance between Q. _-ye_ and
      Latin _que_. In addition to that it may be worth mentioning that the
      origin of Q. _ar_ and S. _a_ (< root _asa_) 'beside' is reminiscent
      (parallel) of Latin _et_ 'and' < PIE _eti_ 'beside' etc.

      BTW, the ">" in "_ar_ (_as_) > [root]_asa_ 'beside'" p. 31 line 4 is a typo
      for "<" ?

      [No, ">" is the symbol used by Tolkien in the manuscript. This usage
      of ">" where "<" might be expected is not uncommon in Tolkien's
      manuscripts, and assuming (as we must) that Tolkien wrote what he
      intended to write, then this ">" evidently means "points to" (the
      existence of an earlier underlying root or form); i.e., "_ar_ (_as_),
      which point to an original root _asa_ 'beside'." PHW]

      David Kiltz
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