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Re: [Lambengolmor] [was:Acc. in -n and] valence of esta

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  • Hans Georg Lundahl
    As a latinist I cannot help bumping in when it comes to the valence of a verb meaning name . Latin has double valence system for nuncupare: 1) nuncupare
    Message 1 of 6 , Jun 15, 2004
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      As a latinist I cannot help bumping in when it comes to the
      valence of a verb meaning "name".

      Latin has double valence system for nuncupare:

      1) nuncupare huiusmodi hominem regem
      (two different accusatives);

      2) nuncupare huiusmodi hominem nomine regis
      (instrumental for the name):

      For "I am called" Latin has "to me is the name", "to me"
      being obviously a dative, but the name can be either
      nominative (corresponding to acc. if mihi est had been
      replaced by habeo) or dative - as a qualification of mihi,
      standing in the dative:

      1) nomen mihi est Gaius;
      2) nomen mihi est Gaio.

      The question is, Sindarin not being a case language, and
      fossilised pronominal instrumentals tending to become
      used as adverbs of reason, it would not be most secure to
      assume that the name itself is the usual non-case-marked form
      of it, whereas the pronoun, if fossilising anything except a
      non-case-marked form, would fossilise the accusative,
      irrespective of what syntactical case -- except nominative/subject
      -- it was used for. Of course, some northern languages -- North
      German "mir", "dir", English "him", "her", Danish "ham", "henne",
      Swedish "honom", "henne" -- actually use some fossilised datives
      as oblique pronominal forms.

      Could this be of some help?

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    • Hans Georg Lundahl
      ... I can. The name is an attribute of the named. Therefore it is rather a predicative attribute (or predicative, in this terminology) than a gift to him. [But
      Message 2 of 6 , Jun 16, 2004
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        "Beregond. Anders Stenström" <beregond@...> wrote:

        >I can not see that [verb]+[accusative: the named]+
        >+[predicative: the name] is per se more straightforward than
        >[verb]+[accusative: name]+[dative: the named].

        I can. The name is an attribute of the named. Therefore it is rather a predicative attribute (or predicative, in this terminology) than a gift to him.

        [But then one could come back and note, correctly, that a name is a _given_ attribute, not an inherent one -- the more so in the example from the "King's Letter" -- and we are back to the other perspective. Which really is what we're talking about: different languages have different idioms for names and naming based on differing perspective; and sometimes even have more than one idiom within a single language. CFH]

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      • David Kiltz
        ... Certainly. Yet the ample evidence afforded to us by real world languages clearly indicates that, whenever a verb is used that means not just call aut
        Message 3 of 6 , Jun 16, 2004
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          On 16.06.2004, at 13:24, Carl F. Hostetter wrote:

          > Which really is what we're talking about: different languages have
          > different idioms for names and naming based on differing perspective;
          > and sometimes even have more than one idiom within a single language.

          Certainly. Yet the ample evidence afforded to us by real world
          languages clearly indicates that, whenever a verb is used that means
          not just 'call' aut sim. (and even then) we have a construction with
          direct object. It is the 'named' that is coded as direct object. One
          could argue that this is due to the greater salience of the human agent
          in marking hierarchy. But I think the coding is due to the fact that the
          'named' is here the first and necessary complement to the verb. That
          is, you can say 'they named their child' but 'they used Peter as a
          name' is not a complete sentence (unless, of course it refers to some
          prior statement like 'the child was born'. Then, however, it isn't a
          complete sentence either but rather a disconnected complement).

          This, IMHO, is why "[verb]+[accusative: the named]+
          +[predicative: the name] is per se more straightforward than
          [verb]+[accusative: name]+[dative: the named]".

          I'd venture to say that in accusative languages this is a syntactical
          universal, necessitated by the coding strategy of this kind of
          language. I'm always referring to a verb that I view as derivative of
          'name', not just any verb. So, 'to say' would work clearly differently.
          But my whole point is that 'to name' (and that is what I think we have
          in The King's Letter) works this way.

          [Here's a thought: if _esta-_ does take the thing or person named as an
          object, (direct or indirect) then presumably the named would be marked
          with an objective form; why then do we have an apparenly unmarked form
          of the relative pronoun, _i_ 'who' (according to the English gloss), as
          opposed to some objective form meaning 'whom'/ 'to/for whom' (which
          appears to have existed for at least some kind of Sindarin, cf. _ai_ *'for
          those who' in _Ae Adar N�n_)? Since its referent is the object in question,
          the named person, ought it not by the same typological argument likewise
          show object inflection? (A similar observation about the form and apparent
          function of the relative in this phrase was made, if I recall correctly, in
          Ivan Derzhanski's discussion of _i Panthael estathar aen_ in his article
          "_Peth i dirathar aen_: Some Notes on Eldarin Relative Constructions" in
          VT 38.) CFH]

          The example adduced by Pavel Iosad:

          > Russian _kormitj_ 'to feed' normally codes the one who is fed in
          > the accusative and the food with the instrumental.
          > However, its derivative _skarmlivatj_ (which means the
          > same, but also carries stylistic overtones) takes the food
          > as direct object and the one being fed as indirect object
          > in the dative.

          is interesting. Clearly, we have a stylistically marked construction
          here. A question: Can you say in English 'I fed the cat its milk' ?

          [Yes, and without much markedness, except that we generally don't
          speak of "feeding" liquids, but rather typically associate the verb
          "feed" with solid food. I would more naturally say, "I gave the cat (its)
          milk"; similarly, I wouldn't say "The cat ate its milk", but rather "The
          cat drank its milk". CFH]

          If so, how does it contrast with 'I fed the cat with milk' ?

          [This would be a marekdly unusual thing to say in English, execpt e.g. as
          a full and formal response to the question "What did you feed the cat with?".
          CFH]

          (I'm aware that this is not an English language list but I would use
          the answer in illucidating, or trying to, the Sindarin construction
          further).

          [No problem. CFH]

          -David Kiltz
        • David Kiltz
          ... Actually, I don t see any need to assume that the relative marker S. _i_ was specifically marked as a direct object. In Ae Adar Nín ...sui mín i
          Message 4 of 6 , Jul 5, 2004
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            On 16.06.2004, at 14:20, Carl Hostetter wrote:

            > Here's a thought: if _esta-_ does take the thing or person named as an
            > object, (direct or indirect) then presumably the named would be marked
            > with an objective form; why then do we have an apparenly unmarked form
            > of the relative pronoun, _i_ 'who' (according to the English gloss), as
            > opposed to some objective form meaning 'whom'/ 'to/for whom' (which
            > appears to have existed for at least some kind of Sindarin, cf. _ai_
            > *'for those who' in _Ae Adar Nín_)?

            Actually, I don't see any need to assume that the relative marker S.
            _i_ was specifically marked as a direct object. In 'Ae Adar Nín'
            "...sui mín i gohenam di ai gerir úgerth ammen", [VT44:21]. For me the
            most likely interpretation of this sentence is: *'sicut (et) nos eas
            (_i_) (sc. transgressiones) dimittimus illis (_di_) qui peccant in
            nobis'.

            This would be quite parallel to Quenya _sív' emme apsenet tien i úcarer
            emmen_: *'sicut (et) nos dimittimus eas (_-t) illis (_tien_) qui
            peccant in nobis.

            Neither the direct nor indirect object is then marked in Sindarin. _Ai_
            would be a special form of the relative pronoun (maybe with a stress on
            totality? If _a yath_ is a clue this might be interpreted as _yath_
            'those' and a- intensive etc. prefix). Interpreting _di_ as referring
            back to _úgerth_ in the preceding line doesn't seem to work. What do
            you do with _i_ then? A double reference to _úgerth_ doesn't look
            likely to me: 'sicut (et) nos eas dimittimus eas quibus... ' ?

            -David Kiltz
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