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Re: Quenya rhotacism

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  • Lukas Novak
    I have always supposed that the form _olor_ arose by analogy with the other cases (comp. Latin _honos_/_honor_) . This seems to me to be the most natural
    Message 1 of 18 , Jan 3, 2004
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      I have always supposed that the form _olor_ arose by analogy with
      the other cases (comp. Latin _honos_/_honor_) . This seems to
      me to be the most natural explanation.

      Lukas
    • Ales Bican
      ... **I see. I took a second look on the sentence and yes, it could be read like this. I am not a native English speaker either, so my reading does not have to
      Message 2 of 18 , Jan 3, 2004
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        Helios De Rosario Martinez wrote:

        >I see. You say it means: _s_ and _z_ are variants (one to each other)
        >similarly as _þ_ and _ð_ are (one to each other). But I interpreted it
        >otherwise: that _s_ was a variant of _þ_ similarly as _z_ was a
        >variant of _ð_.

        Carl F. Hostetter remarked:

        >Helios's interpretation here is undoubtedly the correct one. Note that
        >Tolkien says _s_ and _z_ are variants _of_ _þ_ and _ð_, not that _s_ is
        >a variant of _z_ _as_ _þ_ is of _ð_. Note too that in the accompanying
        >chart to this statement, "(_s_)" and "(_z_)" were originally written in as
        >variants to _þ_ and _ð_, respectively.

        **I see. I took a second look on the sentence and yes, it could be
        read like this. I am not a native English speaker either, so my
        reading does not have to be natural. I will trust Carl as a native
        speaker.

        I wrote:

        >>Since the table (p. 16) of Cor-Eldarin reflexes of primitive
        >>Eldarin sounds does not mention what happened to voiced spirants
        >>word-initially, I suppose that voiced _z_ and _ð_ developed as
        >>variants only word-medially.

        Helios replied:

        >That is a good point to discuss, by the way. Does not the table of
        >PE12:16 mention what happened to initial voiced spirants? I am not
        >sure. Of course, there is no row with the label "4/ initial", ("4" is
        >the grade of voiced spirants), but there _is_ a "(4)" before "2/
        >initial" like the "(2)" before "4/ medial". Since we explicitly learn
        >that "2 medial == 4 medial", may it mean that voiced spirants behavied
        >initially the same way as voiced stops?

        **It is interesting that we are explicitly told what happened to
        voiced stops (explosives) word-initially and what happened to
        voiced spirants word-medially. We are also told that voiced stops
        medially = voiced spirants medially. Could it be that the two
        series had a complementary distribution? What I mean is that voiced
        stops occurred only word-initially and voiced spirants only
        word-medially. Or is it to suggest that initially voiced spirants
        merged with voiced stops and medially voiced stops merged with
        voiced spirants (which would also result in complementarity)?

        To put it diagrammatically:
        first phase
        initially:
        voiced stops - remained
        voiced spirants > voiced stops
        medially:
        voiced stops > voiced spirants
        voiced spirants - remained
        second phase
        initially:
        voiced stops - developed as described in PE12:16
        medially:
        voiced spirants - developed as described in PE12:16

        Note that (as I mentioned in the previous post) later (in real
        time) voiced stops seem to become voiced spirants medially, so
        perhaps this aspect was incorporated and present already in
        developments in the Qenya era. As commonly known, Tolkien was
        inspired by Finnish and Finnish is not very fond of voiced
        stops. Note also that in draft notes on pp. 23-4 (op. cit.)
        Tolkien mentioned only voiced spirants, there does not seem
        to be any note on voiced stops.

        [_olos_ vs. _olor_:]

        >Yes, more or less. Although I was aware of it, I forgot to point that
        >in later stages we can find many exceptions in the model of the _s_
        >rhotacism. This is clearly seen in the case of intervocalic _s_
        >developed in Etym. and later (I will not mention examples or possible
        >causes, since they are already discussed in the messages of the
        >_Quenya_ Group you mentioned -- http://groups.yahoo.com/group/quenya/
        >messages #830-832, for any who wants the reference). But I thought
        >that the case of final _-s_ is also retained depending of the
        >circumstances, not a general rule.

        **Let me note that the messages 830 through 832 is actually the
        discussion on _aselye_ that I had with Carl and that I mentioned
        last time. In the discussion I theorized that the exceptions like
        _ósanwe_ or _alasaila_ may rather be due to analogy and
        congruence with _sanwe_ and _saila_.

        >Let's just take the same example you provide, the note on _olos_ in
        >UT:396. You must have noticed that in another note the term _olor_ is
        >mentioned instead. By your words I suppose you think that the note with
        >_olor_ was somewhat older, and that when Tolkien discarded the final
        >_-s_ > _-r_ he then wrote the alternative of _olos_.

        **My opinion is that in the Etym era final _s_ turned to _r_ but
        it did not later (say, after publication of LotR). Actually, I
        overlooked the fact that the text on Istari in UT mentioned also
        _olor_. It may be that the _r_ in _olor_ was original, sc. not
        a product of rhotacism, unlike the _r_ in _olor_ from Etym which
        < _s_.

        >It may be so, but also that both _olos_ and _olor_ existed, coming
        >from the original unrhotacized _olos_, but developed differently
        >depending of their precise meaning.

        **This is of course possible.

        > Notice that _olor_ is translated
        >as 'dream' (in the Elvish mood, related to memory, imagination, clear
        >vision...), and _olos_ as 'vision, phantasy' (related to mind
        >construction, art...). This would be similar to the dicotomy between
        >_ar_ (conjunction) / _as_ (preposition), both from Common Eldarin _as_
        >('and') that Carl commented in the message #831 of the _Quenya_ list.

        **While this is possible as well, it need not be so. As
        I wrote in the message no. 830 on the Quenya list, I am not
        quite convinced that _ar_ "and" and _as_ "with" are really derived
        from the same root, sc. AS. The status of rhotacism in the
        Prayers is, I think, not obvious, there are several uncertainties,
        e.g. _nísi_ -- why not *_níri_? Let me note that I also touched
        this matter in my article _the -s case_:
        http://www.elvish.org/elm/scase.html

        >Anyway, I cannot find evidence of this. It could even be that the word
        >_olor_ (the etymology of which is not accurately described in UT:396),
        >did not come from _olo-s_ (opposite to _olos_), but from _olo-sV_ (V
        >being a short vowel), and so rhotacized because it was intervocalic
        >but later lost the sort final vowel. I don't know.

        **This is possible, too. However, it would mean that rhotacism
        took place before loss of final short vowels. We do not know
        when rhotacism was meant to happen in the Etym era but the
        essay _Quendi and Eldar_ suggests that it was quite a late
        change when final CE short vowels were most likely dropped.

        Another instance of possible different development of final _s_
        can be seen in instances of the short 3rd person pronominal
        suffix. It seems to appear as _-r_ in Earendel (see MC): _lútier
        ... Earendil_ "sailed Earendel", _langon ... kírier_ "the throat
        ... clove", _i lunte linganer_ "the boad hummed" and _i súru
        laustaner_ "the wind 'lausted'". However, it appears as _-s_ in
        famous _utúvienyes_ (LotR) or _eques_ "said he / she" (WJ:415).

        On my suggestion that _Elerína_ may be _ele + rína_ instead
        of _elen + rína_ Helios wrote:

        >I don't think it was _ele-_ + _rína_. If so, Tolkien would not have
        >changed it to _Elerrína_ in later stages (when, according to what I
        >said, some combinations of consonant + _r_ > _rr_ did not derived into
        >single _r_).

        **I am not sure if I understand you. If it was once _ele + rína_,
        why could Tolkien not decide later it was rather _elen + rína_?

        * * *

        I wrote:

        >>As regards _bh_ and _3_ it is even more dubious; note that
        >>combinations _rb_ and _rg_ are mentioned only in QPh, as far as
        >>I know they are attested in no Quenya word, not even in the Qenya
        >>Lexicon alone.

        Andreas Johannson remarked:

        >In Etym, under TARAG, we se *_targâ_ as the ancestral form of Q
        >_tarya_.

        **This is an interesting development. I wonder what the next part
        of A&C will say about it because I cannot quite understand the
        change of _g_ to _y_. Perhaps the _y_ in _tarya_ is a misreading
        for _g_ and we will have the very first word with _rg_? And
        looking at development of _gh_ (written as gamma) in PE12:24 where
        _rgh_ gave _rg_, it may even be that the _y_ is a misreading for
        a gamma.

        > I'm
        >not aware of any attest example of what happened to *rb, but my money's
        >on _rv_.

        **I would place the same bet, though QPh allows existence of
        _rb_ along with _lb_. And if later Quenya has variation _lb_ ~
        _lv_, it could also have _rb_ ~ _rv_.

        And Andreas, as regards spirant phonemes in CE, I agree
        with you: I also think CE of Etym did not have more
        spirant phonemes other than /s/ (realized as [s]
        word-initially and [z] intervocalically?) and /h/ realized
        as, inter alia, [x] before a voiceless sound. (A question
        may be asked if _kt_ had already become _xt_ when _3t_
        became _xt_. If so, I would be tempted to intepret [x]
        in _mahta_ as a realization of an archiphoneme /k-h/
        but that is a different matter.)


        Ales Bican

        --
        What's in a name? That which we call a rose
        by any other name would smell as sweet. (Juliet, _Romeo and Juliet_)
      • Hans Georg Lundahl
        The contrastive forms _olos_ and _olor_ can be explained with ease in two different ways: A) originally _olos_ gets its final _s_ voiced in position before
        Message 3 of 18 , Jan 3, 2004
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          The contrastive forms _olos_ and _olor_ can be explained with ease in two different ways:

          A) originally _olos_ gets its final _s_ voiced in position before vocalic endings to _z_ which then becomes _r_ (cf. Old Latin _honos_, Classic & Vulgar Latin _honor_).

          B) originally *_oloz_ (wherever that came from) remains in position before vocalic endings, and later becomes _olor_, but gets its final _z_ devoiced to _olos_ in word-final position (cf. Polish G.Pl. spelled _ów_ [Croatian _ov_] and pronounced _uf_).

          As _s_ is a more common phoneme than _z_: do we actually _know_ that explanation A can be excluded so that explanation B must be accepted and raise the problem of where that _z_ came from? I am speaking of the internal evolution of _LotR_-style Quenya from Primitive Eldarin, I am well aware that _z_ occurs in Qenya.

          Höstrusk och grå moln - köp en resa till solen på Yahoo! Resor

          [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
        • Andreas Johansson
          ... Well, as there s to the very best of my knowledge no (other) Q word with a gamma in it, it would rather surpise me. And _g_ _gh_ _y_ is hardly very odd.
          Message 4 of 18 , Jan 3, 2004
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            Quoting Ales Bican <ales.bican@...>:

            > Andreas Johannson remarked:
            >
            >> In Etym, under TARAG, we se *_targâ_ as the ancestral form of Q >_tarya_.
            >
            > ... I cannot quite understand the change of _g_ to _y_. Perhaps the _y_ in
            > _tarya_ is a misreading for _g_ and we will have the very first word with
            > _rg_? And looking at development of _gh_ (written as gamma) in PE12:24
            > where _rgh_ gave _rg_, it may even be that the _y_ is a misreading for a
            > gamma.

            Well, as there's to the very best of my knowledge no (other) Q word with a
            gamma in it, it would rather surpise me. And _g_>_gh_>_y_ is hardly very odd.
            Greek's done it before front vowels, f'rinstance, and Noldorin seems to much
            the same in _Diriel_<_Dirghel_ (mentioned under DER in Etym), where the second
            element is from GYEL. Unchanged _-rg-_ wouldn't agree with the statement in
            Appendix E that Q only had _g_ in _-ng-_, but of course, the Professor may
            have changed his mind between writing Etym and LotR.

            There's also Q _felya_ from PHELEG- - no primitive form listed, but almost
            certainly *_phelgâ_; cf AT _felga_ and ON _phelga_. This would be a parallel
            development.

            (And yes, I'm aware of Q _ulundo_ < _ulgundô_, which raises the question why
            we're not seeing **fela instead.)

            > (A question may be asked if _kt_ had already become _xt_ when _3t_ became
            > _xt_. If so, I would be tempted to intepret [x] in _mahta_ as a realization of an
            > archiphoneme /k-h/ but that is a different matter.)

            It cannot have, since _ma3-tâ-_>_mahtâ-_ and _maktâ-_ yields different forms
            in Noldorin; _matho_ (with the Noldorin infinitival -o) and _maetha_ (glossed
            as infinitive, but apparently a "personless" present tense) respectively.

            "Quendi and Eldar" has AT _hecta-_ from _hek-tâ-_, confirming that _kt_ > _ht_
            is a specifically Quenya development.

            Andreas
          • Darrell Martin
            Greetings: If one wished to test a hypothesis that some invented Tolkien language I is based on some primary-world language P, how ought one go about it?
            Message 5 of 18 , Jan 3, 2004
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              Greetings:

              If one wished to test a hypothesis that some invented Tolkien language I is "based on" some primary-world language P, how ought one go about it?

              What features and criteria would be sufficient demonstration of an influence? What documentation would be expected?

              Darrell


              Darrell A. Martin darrellm@...
              a native Vermonter currently in exile in Illinois
              http://www.darrell-martin.net/genealogy


              [I would say that phonetic character, sc. inventory and permitted patterns, and especially the phonological developments that produced them, must rank as the chief influence on Tolkien's languages from primary-world languages. If you can demonstrate a persuasive similarity between the phonological development of language I from Common Eldarin and that of language P from Proto-Indo-European (assuming P is an IE language), I would count the influence demonstrated. Other influences exist as well, of course, as with grammatical mutation in Sindarin and Welsh, or the rich inflectional systems of Quenya and Finnish (and to a lesser extent Latin). For Tolkienian and/or primary-world languages where phonological information is spotty or non-existent (e.g., Khuzdul, Black Speech), one must instead rely on synchronic features, such as an inventory of phonemes and permitted sound patterns, apparent derivational mechanisms, etc. etc. CFH]
            • Lukas Novak
              ... Perhaps because of the difference of the stress pattern? In felga felya the felg fely syllable is stressed, whereas in ulgundo ulundo the ulg ul
              Message 6 of 18 , Jan 4, 2004
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                Andreas Johansson wrote:

                > (And yes, I'm aware of Q _ulundo_ < _ulgundô_, which raises
                > the question why we're not seeing **fela instead.)

                Perhaps because of the difference of the stress pattern?
                In "felga>felya" the "felg>fely" syllable is stressed, whereas
                in "ulgundo>ulundo" the "ulg>ul" syllable is not stressed?
                To me it makes sense - but who is me :-) ?

                Lukas
              • Andreas Johansson
                ... I d rather expect the words to syllabify as fel.ya and u.lun.do, respectively, but the idea that the difference is due to the difference in stress might be
                Message 7 of 18 , Jan 5, 2004
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                  Quoting Lukas Novak <lukas.novak@...>:

                  > Andreas Johansson wrote:
                  >
                  > > (And yes, I'm aware of Q _ulundo_ < _ulgundô_, which raises
                  > > the question why we're not seeing **fela instead.)
                  >
                  > Perhaps because of the difference of the stress pattern?
                  > In "felga>felya" the "felg>fely" syllable is stressed, whereas
                  > in "ulgundo>ulundo" the "ulg>ul" syllable is not stressed?
                  > To me it makes sense - but who is me :-) ?

                  I'd rather expect the words to syllabify as fel.ya and u.lun.do, respectively,
                  but the idea that the difference is due to the difference in stress might be
                  correct nonetheless. I don't think I've ever heard any other decent internal
                  explanation, while the obvious external one, that the good Professor changed
                  the rules during the composition of Etym, has been advanced repeatedly.

                  Another possible internal explanation that struck me right now is that it
                  could simply be due to the different following vowel. No closely parallel case
                  is known to me, but the phenomenon as such, the same consonant behaving
                  variously depending on the following vowel, is examplified by the different
                  fate of primitive *w before *a and *o, for instance. (I'm unfortunately unable
                  to provide a proper citation for that, having again left my library back in
                  Sweden. Carl?)

                  [Comparison of derivatives of Etym. WÔ- (Q _o-_/_ó-_) and bases in WA-,
                  such as WA3- (Q _vára_), WAN- (Q _vanya_), etc. exhibit this contrast.
                  See also the statement in _Quendi and Eldar_ that initial _w-_ was "lost in
                  Quenya before _ô_" (XI:367). (Please note that I make no promise of
                  providing citations in the future!) CFH]

                  Andreas
                • Ales Bican
                  ... **So would it surprise me. I did not want to say that it should really be a gamma but the development in QPh I mentioned last time (i.e. _r _ ... **I
                  Message 8 of 18 , Jan 5, 2004
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                    Andreas Johansson wrote:

                    >>>In Etym, under TARAG, we se *_targâ_ as the ancestral form of Q >_tarya_.
                    >>>
                    >> ... I cannot quite understand the change of _g_ to _y_. Perhaps the _y_ in
                    >> _tarya_ is a misreading for _g_ and we will have the very first word with
                    >> _rg_? And looking at development of _gh_ (written as gamma) in PE12:24
                    >> where _rgh_ gave _rg_, it may even be that the _y_ is a misreading for a
                    >> gamma.
                    >
                    > Well, as there's to the very best of my knowledge no (other) Q word with a
                    > gamma in it, it would rather surpise me.

                    **So would it surprise me. I did not want to say that it should really be a
                    gamma but the development in QPh I mentioned last time (i.e. _r<gamma>_
                    > _rg_) struck my attention. Gamma is after all similar to _y_.

                    > And _g_>_gh_>_y_ is hardly very odd. Greek's done it before front vowels,
                    > f'rinstance, and Noldorin seems to much the same in _Diriel_<_Dirghel_
                    > (mentioned under DER in Etym), where the second element is from GYEL.

                    **I do not claim that it cannot be possible. I would only like to understand
                    the development. If this happened in Greek before front vowels, it is
                    understandable, since after spirantization _g_ could have been assimilated
                    to _i_ or _e_, sc. fronted to become palatal fricative and then become (or
                    remained fricative?) palatal appoximant _y_. However, I can hardly see
                    motivation in the case of _targâ_ > Q _tarya_.

                    > Unchanged _-rg-_ wouldn't agree with the statement in Appendix E that
                    > Q only had _g_ in _-ng-_, but of course, the Professor may have changed
                    > his mind between writing Etym and LotR.

                    **Sure he could and very likely did, as suggests e.g. _ei_ in _inimeite_
                    (Etym s.v. INI).

                    >There's also Q _felya_ from PHELEG- - no primitive form listed, but almost
                    >certainly *_phelgâ_; cf AT _felga_ and ON _phelga_. This would be a parallel
                    >development.

                    **Two instances make it more probable but still I am interested in what A&C
                    will say about it.


                    Ales Bican

                    --
                    What's in a name? That which we call a rose
                    by any other name would smell as sweet. (Juliet, _Romeo and Juliet_)
                  • Andreas Johansson
                    ... Because I m a dudhead, I forgot to mention you get rG rj also in Swedish. I m not sufficiently into the phonological development of my native language to
                    Message 9 of 18 , Jan 6, 2004
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                      Quoting Ales Bican <ales.bican@...>:

                      > Quoting Andreas Johansson:
                      > > And _g_>_gh_>_y_ is hardly very odd. Greek's done it before front vowels,
                      > > f'rinstance, and Noldorin seems to much the same in _Diriel_<_Dirghel_
                      > > (mentioned under DER in Etym), where the second element is from GYEL.
                      >
                      > **I do not claim that it cannot be possible. I would only like to understand
                      >
                      > the development. If this happened in Greek before front vowels, it is
                      > understandable, since after spirantization _g_ could have been assimilated
                      > to _i_ or _e_, sc. fronted to become palatal fricative and then become (or
                      > remained fricative?) palatal appoximant _y_. However, I can hardly see
                      > motivation in the case of _targâ_ > Q _tarya_.

                      Because I'm a dudhead, I forgot to mention you get rG > rj also in Swedish.
                      I'm not sufficiently into the phonological development of my native language
                      to tell exactly in what environments, but it seems to have failed to take
                      place medially before a back vowel (e.g. _morgon_ ['mOr`gOn] "morning"),
                      but it did happen finally (e.g. _varg_ [var`j] "wolf"*), so no front vowel is
                      _required_ for it. You do get it before 'a' (e.g. _vargar_ ['var`jar`] "wolves"),
                      but then this is a front [a], not back [A] like in Q, and all examples of -rga-
                      I can think of have a morpheme boundary in them anyway.

                      * This is of course not the cognate of "wolf" - that's _ulv_ [8lv]. But I
                      suspect it's very much connected to Tolkienian "warg"!

                      Andreas

                      PS Phonetic transcriptions above follow the X-SAMPA system, which is described
                      here: http://www.phon.ucl.ac.uk/home/sampa/x-sampa.htm . Note further that
                      values are for my dialect - in particular, a retroflex trill is far from the
                      only variant of Swedish /r/ heard! Indeed, in casual speech some of those
                      would be retroflex approximants for me.
                    • David Kiltz
                      ... In addition to Andreas Johansson s examples from Swedish, I might add that in some German dialects the same happens. In the Rhineland area you have /ju:t/
                      Message 10 of 18 , Jan 6, 2004
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                        On 05.01.2004, at 23:27, Ales Bican wrote:

                        > I can hardly see
                        > motivation in the case of _targâ_ > Q _tarya_.

                        In addition to Andreas Johansson's examples from Swedish, I might add
                        that in some German dialects the same happens. In the Rhineland area
                        you have /ju:t/ for SG (=Standard German) _gut_ etc. (the 'j' being
                        pronounced very similar to English 'y' but with some palatal friction).
                        In fact, moving towards the Ruhrgebiet you will hear /gürjen/ for the
                        PN 'Jürgen', that is /j/ and /g/ are exchanged. Phonetically, what
                        happens is that 'light', that is palatalized /g/ becomes a fricative
                        which naturally yields /j/. Now (for your point) velar or
                        non-palatalized /g/ should become /G/ (I mean the velar voiced back
                        spirant). However the opposition /G/ : /j/ is leveled in favour of /j/.
                        The reason for that would seem to be that a /G/ would normally be
                        pronounced further down the throat than /g/ hence in the process of
                        spirantization the point of articulation is moved either way (to the
                        front or the rear of the gum). Possibly because the process of
                        spirantization started with palatalized /g'/, i.e. g before front
                        vowels and was then analogously extended to all instances of /g/. Or
                        else, because the pronunciation of /g/ has already been somewhat
                        fronted before, so that the output is /j/ without significant movement
                        of the point of articulation, if any at all. In fact, there *is* a very
                        slight difference between /j/ in _jeck_ 'crazy' and _jut_ 'good', the
                        latter being pronounced somewhat more to the back, between the palatum
                        and the velum.

                        I think that a scenario along these lines looks rather likely. At any
                        rate, the development exhibited by Quenya is well documented in real
                        world languages, as /j/ = /y/ is attested even in the history of
                        English (although the output of /g/ +- pal. are different).

                        -David Kiltz
                      • Lukas Novak
                        ... I rather agree - I did not mean to imply where exactly the syllable boundary lies. ... Yes, but it seems that Q phonology avoids _w_ and _y_ glides
                        Message 11 of 18 , Jan 6, 2004
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                          Andreas Johansson wrote:

                          > I'd rather expect the words to syllabify as fel.ya and u.lun.do,
                          > respectively,

                          I rather agree - I did not mean to imply where exactly the syllable
                          boundary lies.

                          > Another possible internal explanation that struck me right now is that it
                          > could simply be due to the different following vowel.

                          > [Comparison of derivatives of Etym. WÔ- (Q _o-_/_ó-_) and bases in WA-,
                          > such as WA3- (Q _vára_), WAN- (Q _vanya_), etc. exhibit this contrast.
                          > See also the statement in _Quendi and Eldar_ that initial _w-_ was "lost in
                          > Quenya before _ô_" (XI:367). (Please note that I make no promise of
                          > providing citations in the future!) CFH]

                          Yes, but it seems that Q phonology avoids _w_ and _y_ glides
                          consistently before the phonologically related vowels: the rounded
                          vowels in case of _w_, and the highest vowel (_i_) in case of _y_.
                          I would not on this ground expect that the following _u_ is the reason
                          why _g_ disappears rather than changes into _y_ (we have "yulda",
                          so _yu_ is allowed).

                          Lukas
                        • Lukas Novak
                          ... I can think of 2 possible motivations: analogy, or getting the pronunciation nearer to the preceding dental/alveolar _r_ (_l_). Together with the attempt
                          Message 12 of 18 , Jan 6, 2004
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                            Ales Bican wrote:

                            > I can hardly see motivation in the case of _targâ_ > Q _tarya_.

                            I can think of 2 possible motivations: analogy, or getting
                            the pronunciation nearer to the preceding dental/alveolar
                            _r_ (_l_). Together with the attempt to retain the long syllable
                            (which excludes just dropping the sound), because of
                            its being stressed.

                            Lukas
                          • Andreas Johansson
                            ... I never said it was a _good_ explanation, but if it has any validity, surely the consonant dropped at the gh stage, and gh is nearer to u than to
                            Message 13 of 18 , Jan 7, 2004
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                              Quoting Lukas Novak <lukas.novak@...>:

                              > I would not on this ground expect that the following _u_ is the reason
                              > why _g_ disappears rather than changes into _y_ (we have "yulda",
                              > so _yu_ is allowed).

                              I never said it was a _good_ explanation, but if it has any validity, surely
                              the consonant dropped at the 'gh' stage, and 'gh' is nearer to 'u' than to 'a'.

                              One might also argue that what we need explained isn't why 'gh' dropped in
                              _ulundo_, which is the normal fate of 'gh' in Q, but why it failed to drop in
                              _tarya_ and _felya_. In this light your suggestion re: maintaining length of a
                              stressed syllable seems the more relevant explanation.

                              Andreas
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