I have a question concerning the passage from Tolkien's essay on
_The Rivers and Beacon-hills of Gondor_ (VT42:27), quoted in
Carl Hostetter's article "The Two Phonetic Values of _ll_ in Elvish
Sindarin in _The Lord of the Rings_" in _Tengwestië_:
"Medially however _nth_ (_nþ_), _nch_ (_ñx_), _mf_ (_mp_ with bilabial
_f_), and _lth_ (_lþ_) became long voiceless _n_, _ñ_, _m_, _l_, though
the old spelling was mostly retained (beside _nh_, _ñh_, _mh_, _lh_)"
Does this mean that the voiceless _n_, _ng_, _m_ and _l_ were spelt
/nth/, /nch/, /mf/ and /lth/ medially and initially they were spelt as
noted in parentheses, to distinguish them as evolving from older initial
clusters _sn-_, _sm-_ and _sl-_? If so, how does initial _ñh_ evolve?
Israeli Tolkino-Linguistics Community.
[No, I don't think that Tolkien is saying that. He is speaking
specifically about the development of _medial_ combinations to long
voiceless resonants, and noting that despite this development these
new medial long voiceless resonants retained an etymological
spelling, in addition to the new spellings noted (those in _-h_).
While on the subject of long voiceless resonants, and more
generally on the dialectal variations Tolkien describes in the
passage quoted in my _Tengwestië_ article, I would like to point
out that these developments and dialectal variations are clearly
modelled on very similar themes in Welsh and Welsh dialectal
variances. Perhaps one of our Welsh-speaking and/or Celticist
members could enlighten us more on this point. CFH]