Loading ...
Sorry, an error occurred while loading the content.

Re: [Lambengolmor] Re: Quenya pl. _-r_ (was "Historical explanation")

Expand Messages
  • Rich Alderson
    ... Of course, you have cited *three* English formations (-s, umlaut, and zero ending). There is also the -en plural formation (ox-oxen, brother-brethren,
    Message 1 of 14 , Nov 23, 2003
    View Source
    • 0 Attachment
      > People seem to be surprised because this gives 3 original plural markers in
      > Quenya. The surprise may be provoked by the fact that most modern European
      > languages have only one (English has one and a half, remember "geese" and
      > "mice"). German has -e, -er, -(e)n, -s, depending on the noun, and the
      > occasional Umlaut, so why should Quenya have only one or two?

      Of course, you have cited *three* English formations (-s, umlaut, and zero
      ending). There is also the -en plural formation (ox-oxen, brother-brethren,
      extended analogically to computers in VAX-VAXen), and the borrowed Latin -i or
      -ii which is more often misused than used correctly. The -s formant has been
      spreading through the vocabulary at the expense of the others for centuries,
      but enough remnants exist for naive native speakers to have a feel for their
      usage.

      Why would you expect JRRT, a Germanic philologist, to stint on plurals in his
      languages?

      Rich Alderson | /"\ ASCII ribbon |
      quenya@... | \ / campaign against |
      "You get what anybody gets. You get a lifetime." | x HTML mail and |
      --Death, of the Endless | / \ postings |
    Your message has been successfully submitted and would be delivered to recipients shortly.