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Re: Tyelpetema and phonetics vs. phonology in Quenya

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  • Pavel Iosad
    Hello, ... I was referring to IX:56, where the forms _lendien_ and _nilendie_ occur, and they are to be compared with the first edition s _vánier_, as well
    Message 1 of 22 , Mar 6, 2003
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      Hello,

      Ales Bican wrote:

      > **Er, did I miss something? As far as I know neither the perfect of
      > _lelya-_ (did you mean _auta-_?)

      I was referring to IX:56, where the forms _lendien_ and
      _nilendie_ occur, and they are to be compared with the first edition's
      _vánier_, as well with the facing page (IX:57), where the perfect of
      #_tuv-_'find' consistently shows a long vowel (in both of the texts):
      _túvien_.

      > Nevertheless, there is a form which may show that the stem-vowel
      > is not shortened if preceded by _nt_: it is the preterite _lantie_
      > "fell" (be it either the past tense or perfect; LR:56).

      _nt_ is straightforwardly a cluster, I think, there's not a lot of
      problem with it.

      > **I do not think this was the form, because the syncope would not only
      > be hard to explain but probably even impossible. I think _aista-_ was
      > derived from *_(g)ais-tâ_, as the primitive form _gais-_ under the
      > entry GÁYAS- in Etym suggests.

      This is also possible, of course.

      > In my opinion, _my_ might be either [mj] or [m'j] phonetically,
      > but it is /mj/ phonologically.

      I agree.

      > **Yes, I am aware of the fact it is not shaded, but I do think that if
      > there is no sign for it means it does not exist in described
      > languages.

      Yes, but it means that it has been nowhere to date found as a phoneme.

      > There is no sign for Czech _r-hacek_, either.

      That'd be coarticulated [r] and [Z].

      > **While I agree with this, I still ask why we have _onye_, _olye_ but
      > _máryat_.

      One explanation is because the long _á_ in _máryat_ is etymological (<
      *_-A3_), but the _o_ in _onye_, _olye_ is etymologically short.

      > **Although this sounds likely and might be true, especially what regards
      > the _nCy_ sequences, I do not dare to combine all Cy combinations --
      > [Ales suspects that the Cy combinations in anlaut and inlaut are not
      > one and the same thing]

      Well, yes, they would be pronounced differently (the difference being
      the presence/absence of the glide).

      > **Only if we assume that Quenya does not allow sequences of three
      > consonantal phonemes.

      Arguments against?

      > **If the _ky_ combination stands [in _Erukyerme_ and _Ekyanáro_]
      > for one phoneme, then I think
      > it is a voiceless palato-velar stop, the same sound that is
      > reconstructed for Indo-European (if I am not mistaken).

      The difference between palato-velar and palatal is not so great, anyway
      the two are not attested as distinctive anywhere.

      > **As I suggested, I still need more phonetic training, but as far as I
      > undertand _ky_ as a palato-velar and _ty_ as a palatal (palato-dental)
      > are different sounds.

      Vide supra. This is possible, but highly untypological.

      > Neither of the most commonly taught languages
      > (i.e. French, Spanish, German) have a palatal _t_. In fact, which
      > European languages besides Czech, Slovak and Hungarian have it?

      Latvian. Macedonian. Albanian. (note all of these are not only European,
      but also Indo-European)

      > The example of 'tune' was probably the one Tolkien could use (not
      > to mention that he wrote it was "probably similar", which can mean
      > anything).

      Yes.

      > **Am I blind or Tolkien did not give any hint how NY should be
      > pronounced? I have not realized it until now. As a matter of fact,
      > he did not mention LY and RY, either. If these combinations stands
      > for palatal _l_ and _r_ respectively, why was it not mentioned?

      _Argumenta ex nihilo_ are dangerous, so I'd answer 'Tolkien only knows'

      > **At any rate, this to-some-degree-palatalized _l_ must still be
      > phonologically regarded as /l/, because this palatalization is
      > a syntagmatic assimilation of [l] to immediate _e, i_. The palatal
      > _l_, if existing in the language, is not depended on the phonetic
      > environment.

      Yes

      > **Let me know that any LY-root is not found, either.[...]
      > This can suggest that _ly_ is not monophonematic.

      Alternatively, this may suggest a prohibition of initial palatal[ized]
      liquids (since there's no _ry_)

      > On the other hand, the "d" component is often lost, as _Quendya_
      > > _Quenya_ shows.

      Are there examples of this in _The Etymologies_? Remember that the
      example is from Q&E.

      Pavel
      --
      Pavel Iosad pavel_iosad@m...

      Is mall a mharcaicheas am fear a bheachdaicheas
      --Scottish proverb
    • David Kiltz
      ... Note however (Pomp. comm. Don.: s littera hanc habet potestatem, ut ubi opus fuerit excludatur de metro. The character of the letter s is such that it
      Message 2 of 22 , Mar 7, 2003
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        On Donnerstag, März 6, 2003, at 07:10 Uhr, Pavel Iosad wrote:

        > [David Kiltz wrote:]
        >
        >> Rather my argument is that the hierarchy can be "violated" by
        >> groups of the kind "sC-".
        >
        > Though one would still wonder what gives it
        > the special status, since 's' is less consonantic than the stops. In
        > PIE, that's apparently its status as the only fricative. I'd hazard a
        > guess that is also the case for PQ.

        Note however (Pomp. comm. Don.: s littera hanc habet potestatem, ut ubi
        opus fuerit excludatur de metro. "The character of the letter s is such
        that it can, when necessary, be omitted in meter"). Latin has more
        fricatives than just s and yet this applies only to s.

        Pavel and I differed in the use of the word "semiotical".
        Pavel sees a typological similarity between PIE and PQ plosive
        inventories, to which I replied:

        >> DH doesn't figure in Elvish.
        >
        > Substitute [+ nasalized] for [+aspirated] and you get it.

        Well yes, but that would work with plosive inventories of many
        languages.

        > So are you suggesting that the mono- or biphonemic realization of
        > the _Cy_'s depends on whether the vowel before them is short or long?

        No. I was indeed thinking of an elvish SIEVER'S at a time. But I don't
        see any compelling reason to assume it.

        David Kiltz


        ------------------------------------------------------------------------
        ----------------

        "Cum autem nobis non dicitur, sed nobiscum; quia si ita diceretur,
        obscoenius concurrerent litterae, ut etiam modo, nisi autem
        interpossuissem, concurrissent". -Cicero
      • Ales Bican
        ... **I see. Why do you think so? ... **I was not talking about a palatalized _p_, because I do not think the graphemic Cy combinations stand for palatalized
        Message 3 of 22 , Mar 15, 2003
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          David Kiltz wrote:

          > Seems you understood me right. There was no confusion. I simply think
          > that _ty_, _hy_, _ny_, _ly_ are combinations of C+y.

          **I see. Why do you think so?

          > > I think the reason why there is nothing like _p+y_ is still because
          > > the word-initial graphemic Cy combinations stand for one phoneme,
          > > not a combination of phonemes.
          >
          > I don't see the causality here. Even *if* the instances of Cy are
          > monophonemic, how would that preclude a combination _py_ (being also
          > monophonemic). Do you think a palatalized _p_ is a priori impossible ?
          > If it's not, the reason for its non-occurence is euphonic, either way.

          **I was not talking about a palatalized _p_, because I do not think
          the graphemic Cy combinations stand for palatalized sounds, but for
          _palatals_. I know Pavel's arguments and I wrote in earlier posts
          why I think they are palatals (Tolkien said the tengwar had a series
          for _palatals_ and described _ty_ as a _palatal_ stop, see the earlier
          posts), but I would like to know yours -- why do you think they are
          palatalized? I am curious to know, since many people seem to think
          the same and perhaps I missed something?

          Anyway, I am not against a palatalized _p_, but since I think initial
          Cy combinations in PQ are monophonematic and palatals, a palatal _p_
          would be hard to imagine. It would be a parallel to a palatal _m_
          that I and Pavel talked about (namely we talked about _my_ in
          _lamya_).

          > **Ales gives the inventory of PQ, including:
          >
          > > palato-dentals: Ty, Dy, Ny (Thy not found)
          >
          > In my view there is no palato-dental series.

          **What do you think these combinations stand for?

          > Indeed, _onye_ and _ohlon_ seem to contradict what I said about
          > _máryat_. However, if we look very closely, the cases aren't exactly
          > the same. _Má_ is a full blown noun whereas _ó_ is a preposition.
          > _Ohlon_ is a new word.

          **It is. However, in WJ:367 Tolkien said that _ó-_ is "usually reduced
          to _o-_ when unstressed". He then gave these examples: _omentie_,
          _ónoni_ "twins" and _onóna_ "twin-born". I would therefore expect
          *_óhlon_, but since we do not see this form, I think it may suggest
          _hl_ here functions as a consonant cluster.

          > Also, inflected prepositions tend to be viewed
          > as one word as the developments of such inflections in e.g. Welsh and
          > Irish show.

          **Note that the _o-_ in _ohlon_ is not an inflected preposition but
          a prefix. And as regards _onye_, it contrasts with _óni_ where no
          reduction occurs because there is no consonant cluster while _ny_
          in _onye_ is potentially a cluster because of the reduction. If _ny_
          was a single phoneme (sound), there would be no reason for the
          reduction.

          > With _máryat_, the situation is different. Note that the
          > _á_ of _máryat_ is indeed shortened when combined with a derivational
          > element yielding a whole new word, cf: _-maite_.

          **Or in _mannar_ in Fíriel's Song. But as I wrote in the very beginning:
          there seems not to be any statement of Tolkien's prohibiting long vowels
          before a consonant cluster.

          > > In case of _aistana_, the relationship [with GAYAS] was perhaps
          > > more desired to be retained because of the words such as _aire_.
          >
          > *Maybe* an irregular soundshape was retained. But that seems highly
          > unusual. In all instance of homophony that Tolkien notes, the words
          > fall out of use.

          **The reason of the exception may not be just in avoiding homophony.
          As I said, keeping the relationship with _aire_ et al. could have
          played its role. As the _Melko_ example suggest, the diphthong _ai_
          is reduced before a consonant cluster -- and so would it be expected
          to be reduced before _st_. Nevertheless, I agree that the sC
          combinations seem to have a special status.

          > > As regards _Hrísto_, this is a doubtful example, because Tolkien
          > > change it to _Hristo_ immediately.
          >
          > Which may be indicative and may not. The Greek _i_ is also short. (Note
          > that _hr_ here stands by all likelihood for two sounds, representing
          > Greek "chi+rho". If _hr_ was indeed monophonemic, why would it have
          > been chosen over simple _r_ or e.g. _kr_. Do you think that _hr_
          > represents another sound than it does normally in Quenya ?).

          **Personally, I thought the name _Hristo_ was taken from Latin
          'Christus' where the 'ch' is pronounced as [x] (if I am not mistaken),
          hence _xr-_ > _r-voiceless_, just as I suppose _sr-_ > _xr-_/_hr-_
          > _r-voiceless_.

          However, despire what was pointed by others (esp. Petri), I also
          think that we may deal with two phonemes (rather then phones) here,
          namely _h_ + _r_. This combination may be realized as voiceless
          _r_ word-initially (which be d'accord with Tolkien's words cited
          by Petri) but as a biphonic combination _hr_ word-medially (which
          would explain _ohlon_).

          When I studied Old English grammars when working on the Atalante
          fragment analysis, I found out that OE has _hr_, _hl_, _hy_ and
          _hw_ occurring only word-initially (and in compounds). This is
          where Tolkien took the idea, I suppose. However, I have not been
          able to find out how these _hr, hl, hy, hw_ are treated
          phonologically: whether as a biphonemic combinations _h_ + sonant
          or monophonemic voiceless sonants.

          > > Phonetically according to the sonority scale [stems like MBAR]
          > > should be dissyllabic. Phonologically, however, they seem
          > > to be monosyllabic.
          >
          > I agree with you in your assessment of _MB_ etc. as monophonemic.
          > Your last sentence, however, I think is wrong. In my opinion, there is
          > no phonetic/phonological contradiction here. If _MBAR_ is indeed
          > monosyllabic it also is phonetically so. Because there is no scale
          > then. _MB_ has óne pitch, then.

          **What I meant to say is that for instance MBAR may represent
          two phonetic syllables M and BAR if M is here syllabic. However,
          phonologically MBAR may be just one syllable if we assume that
          PQ did not allow any word-initial consonantal combinations except
          for _s_ + consonant (under the assumtion that Cy combinations are
          monophonematic -- and I think they are).

          As far as I know (though I have not been able to investigate details
          yet) K. L. Pike made a distinction between phonetic and phonemic
          syllables (in his _Phonemics_). Reportedly, he mentioned that the
          word [Ndá:] in the Mixteco language; this word is both phonetically
          and phonemically dissyllabic, but whereas the syllable separation is
          [N-dá:] phonetically, it is /nda-a/ phonemically, because Mixteco
          is a tone language, where each syllable has a tone but [N] has no
          tone, and _nd-_ is one phoneme, because there are otherwise no
          consonant clusters in the language.

          > We are dealing with prenasalized stops here, I'd say.

          **Yes, they seem to be (Tolkien speaks about them as nasalized
          explosives in _The Qenya Phonology_).

          > _umbar_ may well not be a case of a syllabic _m_ but
          > actually *_ú-mbar_ "ill fate".

          **Sure, that is possible. However, there are other examples, like
          ÑGYÓ > Q _indyo_.

          > (Unfortunately I'm unable to access two of the sources mentioned by
          > Ales an Carl: David Salo's post and PE 12 (as well as 11).

          **I understand that you are not able to access PE12, as it is out of
          print (which does not help the scholarship at all!), but David's post
          should be accessible via www. If you are still unable to access it,
          let me know off-list and I will forward it to you.

          [Out of print does not necessarily mean inaccessible; there is,
          _inter alia_, library loan. CFH]

          Ales Bican

          --
          kurvannapi vyalíkáni yah. priyah. priya eva sah.
          anekadós.adus.t.ó 'pi káyah. kasya na vallabhah.
        • Ales Bican
          ... **You are right, thanks. Here, however, we cannot say the morphological module would give a form like *_léndie_ and the phonology proper module would
          Message 4 of 22 , Mar 16, 2003
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            Pavel Iosad wrote:

            > > **Er, did I miss something? As far as I know neither the perfect of
            > > _lelya-_ (did you mean _auta-_?)
            >
            > I was referring to IX:56, where the forms _lendien_ and
            > _nilendie_ occur, and they are to be compared with the first edition's
            > _vánier_, as well with the facing page (IX:57), where the perfect of
            > #_tuv-_'find' consistently shows a long vowel (in both of the texts):
            > _túvien_.

            **You are right, thanks. Here, however, we cannot say the
            morphological module would give a form like *_léndie_ and
            the 'phonology proper' module would then give the actual
            output _lendie_, because the stem was already strengthened
            by a nasal-infixed _n_, which is comparable to the lengthening
            in, say, _káre_ "made, did".

            By the way, what about the present tense of _lanta-_? Did you
            mean the form _lantar_ in Namárie?

            > > Nevertheless, there is a form which may show that the stem-vowel
            > > is not shortened if preceded by _nt_: it is the preterite _lantie_
            > > "fell" (be it either the past tense or perfect; LR:56).
            >
            > _nt_ is straightforwardly a cluster, I think, there's not a lot of
            > problem with it.

            **So is _nd_.

            > > There is no sign for Czech _r-hacek_, either.
            >
            > That'd be coarticulated [r] and [Z].

            **Is it? As far as I understand and as I hear, it is not coarticulated. Or
            does the quotation from Trubetzkoy suggest so?

            > > **While I agree with this, I still ask why we have _onye_, _olye_ but
            > > _máryat_.
            >
            > One explanation is because the long _á_ in _máryat_ is etymological (<
            > *_-A3_), but the _o_ in _onye_, _olye_ is etymologically short.

            **I do not think so. The base in Etym is given as WÔ (though in _Quendi
            and Eldar_ as WO, WJ:367).

            > > **Although this sounds likely and might be true, especially what regards
            > > the _nCy_ sequences, I do not dare to combine all Cy combinations --
            > > [Ales suspects that the Cy combinations in anlaut and inlaut are not
            > > one and the same thing]
            >
            > Well, yes, they would be pronounced differently (the difference being
            > the presence/absence of the glide).

            **Now the question whether the glide is phonologic, I mean whether the
            glide is a separate phoneme.

            > > **If the _ky_ combination stands [in _Erukyerme_ and _Ekyanáro_]
            > > for one phoneme, then I think
            > > it is a voiceless palato-velar stop, the same sound that is
            > > reconstructed for Indo-European (if I am not mistaken).
            >
            > The difference between palato-velar and palatal is not so great, anyway
            > the two are not attested as distinctive anywhere.

            **The degree of difference is relative. I can say the difference between
            the sound in English _bad_ and _bed_ is not so great (and I still would
            hesitate which one is which if one of the words was uttered without any
            context), yet it is distinctive in English.
            And the typology obstacle is not so relevant. The _r-hacek_ (now that
            we speak about it) is also very rare.
            Here I mean the situation in Primitive Quendian rather, because _ky_
            in Q _Erukyerme_ and _Ekyanáro_ may be just a variant of _ty_.

            > > Neither of the most commonly taught languages
            > > (i.e. French, Spanish, German) have a palatal _t_. In fact, which
            > > European languages besides Czech, Slovak and Hungarian have it?
            >
            > Latvian. Macedonian. Albanian. (note all of these are not only European,
            > but also Indo-European)

            **And that is the problem: Tolkien could not have mentioned either
            of these languages, because a normal English reader could not know
            either of them.

            > > On the other hand, the "d" component is often lost, as _Quendya_
            > > > _Quenya_ shows.
            >
            > Are there examples of this in _The Etymologies_? Remember that the
            > example is from Q&E.

            **There is _endya_ and _enya_ "middle" under the base ENED.


            Ales Bican

            --
            kurvannapi vyalíkáni yah. priyah. priya eva sah.
            anekadós.adus.t.ó 'pi káyah. kasya na vallabhah.
          • Lukas Novak
            ... AFAIK and hear, it is like [r], only the frequency of trilling is about thrice as high. I think that pronunciation as coarticulated [r] and [Z] would be
            Message 5 of 22 , Mar 16, 2003
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              Ales Bican wrote:

              >> > There is no sign for Czech _r-hacek_, either.
              >>
              >> That'd be coarticulated [r] and [Z].

              > **Is it? As far as I understand and as I hear, it is not coarticulated. Or
              > does the quotation from Trubetzkoy suggest so?

              AFAIK and hear, it is like [r], only the frequency of trilling is
              about thrice as high. I think that pronunciation as coarticulated [r]
              and [Z] would be funny and incorrect (it would betray a stranger :-)).

              Lukas
            • David Kiltz
              ... I will address this issue in a seperate post. ... I understand now. ... Again more on that seperately. ... Yes, I don t see how a labial could be anything
              Message 6 of 22 , Mar 16, 2003
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                On Samstag, März 15, 2003, at 06:53 Uhr, Ales Bican wrote:

                > David Kiltz wrote:
                >
                >> Seems you understood me right. There was no confusion. I simply think
                >> that _ty_, _hy_, _ny_, _ly_ are combinations of C+y.
                >
                > **I see. Why do you think so?

                I will address this issue in a seperate post.

                > **I was not talking about a palatalized _p_, because I do not think
                > the graphemic Cy combinations stand for palatalized sounds, but for
                > _palatals_.

                I understand now.

                > -- why do you think they are palatalized?

                Again more on that seperately.

                > Anyway, I am not against a palatalized _p_, but since I think initial
                > Cy combinations in PQ are monophonematic and palatals, a palatal _p_
                > would be hard to imagine. It would be a parallel to a palatal _m_
                > that I and Pavel talked about (namely we talked about _my_ in
                > _lamya_).

                Yes, I don't see how a labial could be anything other than "palatalized".

                >> **Ales gives the inventory of PQ, including:
                >>
                >>> palato-dentals: Ty, Dy, Ny (Thy not found)
                >>
                >> In my view there is no palato-dental series.
                >
                > **What do you think these combinations stand for?

                Well, a palato-dental, in my view, is a "palatalized" sound. Maybe they
                where palato-alveolars or lamino-palatals (i.e. articulated at the same
                place as e.g. English [sh and zh]). At any rate an inventory with regular
                palatals + palato-dentals looks very dubious. Again, I think true dental
                pronunciation only allows for palatalization.

                > in WJ:367 Tolkien said that _ó-_ is "usually reduced
                > to _o-_ when unstressed". He then gave these examples: _omentie_,
                > _ónoni_ "twins" and _onóna_ "twin-born". I would therefore expect
                > *_óhlon_, but since we do not see this form, I think it may suggest
                > _hl_ here functions as a consonant cluster.

                Yes, I agree. Just as _ry_ is.

                >> Also, inflected prepositions tend to be viewed as one word as the
                >> developments of such inflections in e.g. Welsh and Irish show.
                >
                > **Note that the _o-_ in _ohlon_ is not an inflected preposition but
                > a prefix. And as regards _onye_, it contrasts with _óni_ where no
                > reduction occurs because there is no consonant cluster while _ny_
                > in _onye_ is potentially a cluster because of the reduction. If _ny_
                > was a single phoneme (sound), there would be no reason for the
                > reduction.

                Just what I said. I noted that _ó_ is a preposition and that it is
                inflected. I am and was quite aware that _ohlon_ is not an inflected
                preposition. My remarks were meant to contrast this, in my view perfectly
                regular behaviour, with that of _máryat_. Interestingly, you're answering your
                own question about _ny_. I think it stands for _n+y_, a cluster indeed.

                >> Note that the _á_ of _máryat_ is indeed shortened when combined
                >> with a derivational element yielding a whole new word, cf: _-maite_.
                >
                > there seems not to be any statement of Tolkien's prohibiting long
                > vowels before a consonant cluster.

                But we see reduction almost everywhere else.

                > **The reason of the exception may not be just in avoiding homophony.
                > As I said, keeping the relationship with _aire_ et al. could have played its role.

                Agreed.

                > **Personally, I thought the name _Hristo_ was taken from Latin
                > 'Christus' where the 'ch' is pronounced as [x] (if I am not mistaken),
                > hence _xr-_ > _r-voiceless_, just as I suppose _sr-_ > _xr-_/_hr-_
                > _r-voiceless_.

                The word is of Greek origin. Why would it be taken from Latin where it
                is itself a loan? Also, in view of Christian-Latin texts and the development
                of the word "Christus" in the Romanic languages (_cr-_) I think it was
                pronounced [kr]. That makes a direct loan from Greek into Quenya even
                more likely, I'd say.

                > I found out that OE has _hr_, _hl_, _hy_ and
                > _hw_ occurring only word-initially (and in compounds). This is
                > where Tolkien took the idea, I suppose. However, I have not been
                > able to find out how these _hr, hl, hy, hw_ are treated
                > phonologically: whether as a biphonemic combinations _h_ + sonant
                > or monophonemic voiceless sonants.

                1) They are biphonemic combinations as can be gleaned from their use in
                alliterative verse. These _h_'s go back to pre-Germanic _k_.

                2) I don't think this is where Tolkien got the inspiration. At least
                not in the case of _hl_ and _hr_ which < *_sl_ and *_sr_. I'd warrant
                the guess that the sounds (voiceless _l_ and _r_), were suggested to
                him by Welsh.

                David Kiltz
              • Lukas Novak
                ... Please excuse my amateur query: Would the distinction between Polish c-acute or s-acute and cz, sz respectively, be of the kind you re speaking about?
                Message 7 of 22 , Mar 17, 2003
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                  David Kiltz wrote:

                  > Well, a palato-dental, in my view, is a "palatalized" sound. Maybe they
                  > were palato-alveolars or lamino-palatals (i.e. articulated at the same
                  > place as e.g. English [sh and zh]).
                  > At any rate an inventory with regular palatals + palato-dentals looks
                  > very dubious.

                  Please excuse my amateur query: Would the distinction between Polish
                  c-acute or s-acute and cz, sz respectively, be of the kind you're
                  speaking about?

                  Lukas
                • Ales Bican
                  ... **Ok. Am looking forward to. ... **As I said I was not a phonetician. What I mean by palato-dentals is the sounds like _t , d _ in Czech and Hungarian
                  Message 8 of 22 , Apr 9, 2003
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                    David Kiltz wrote:

                    > >> Seems you understood me right. There was no confusion. I simply think
                    > >> that _ty_, _hy_, _ny_, _ly_ are combinations of C+y.
                    > >
                    > > **I see. Why do you think so?
                    >
                    > I will address this issue in a seperate post.

                    **Ok. Am looking forward to.

                    > > **What do you think these combinations (Ty, Dy, Ny (+Thy)) stand for?
                    >
                    > Well, a palato-dental, in my view, is a "palatalized" sound. Maybe they
                    > where palato-alveolars or lamino-palatals (i.e. articulated at the same
                    > place as e.g. English [sh and zh]).

                    **As I said I was not a phonetician. What I mean by palato-dentals is
                    the sounds like _t', d'_ in Czech and Hungarian (called "palatals" in IPA).
                    They are not palatalized in the sense that the palatalization is a kind of
                    secondary articulation, a timbre added to primary articulation. Of course,
                    the difference between a palatal _t'_ and palatalized _t_ would be very
                    difficult to perceive.

                    They may well be palato-alveolars, but the difference between alveolars
                    and dentals is not relevant here; English _t_ is alveolar, while Czech _t_
                    is dental or rather pre-alveolar. I chose to call them dentals, because Tolkien
                    speaks about these sounds as dentals.

                    > At any rate an inventory with regular
                    > palatals + palato-dentals looks very dubious. Again, I think true dental
                    > pronunciation only allows for palatalization.

                    **It is certainly a little bit strange to have both palato-velars and palato-
                    dentals in one system. The question is how else interpret KY and TY.

                    > > in WJ:367 Tolkien said that _ó-_ is "usually reduced
                    > > to _o-_ when unstressed". He then gave these examples: _omentie_,
                    > > _ónoni_ "twins" and _onóna_ "twin-born". I would therefore expect
                    > > *_óhlon_, but since we do not see this form, I think it may suggest
                    > > _hl_ here functions as a consonant cluster.
                    >
                    > Yes, I agree. Just as _ry_ is.

                    **This is what I think from the beginning -- and therefore we can have
                    a long vowel before a consonant cluster (sc. _máryat_).

                    > > **Note that the _o-_ in _ohlon_ is not an inflected preposition but
                    > > a prefix. And as regards _onye_, it contrasts with _óni_ where no
                    > > reduction occurs because there is no consonant cluster while _ny_
                    > > in _onye_ is potentially a cluster because of the reduction. If _ny_
                    > > was a single phoneme (sound), there would be no reason for the
                    > > reduction.
                    >
                    > Just what I said. I noted that _ó_ is a preposition and that it is
                    > inflected. I am and was quite aware that _ohlon_ is not an inflected
                    > preposition. My remarks were meant to contrast this, in my view perfectly
                    > regular behaviour, with that of _máryat_. Interestingly, you're answering your
                    > own question about _ny_. I think it stands for _n+y_, a cluster indeed.

                    **Again, I think the same from the beginning when I talked about
                    primary and secondary Cy combinations. The question is now
                    whether the combination _ny_ should be identified with word-initial
                    _ny-_, I mean whether we could say that the biphonematic combination
                    /nj/ is realized as [nj] (resp. [n'j] or [Nj]; n' = palatalized; N = palatal n)
                    intervocalically and as [N] word-initially and after another consonant
                    (i.e. in cases like _nty_ or _lty_). I hesitate to do so, though.

                    > >> Note that the _á_ of _máryat_ is indeed shortened when combined
                    > >> with a derivational element yielding a whole new word, cf: _-maite_.
                    > >
                    > > there seems not to be any statement of Tolkien's prohibiting long
                    > > vowels before a consonant cluster.
                    >
                    > But we see reduction almost everywhere else.

                    **That is true. And my best explanation is that _máryat_ is some kind
                    of exception.

                    > > **Personally, I thought the name _Hristo_ was taken from Latin
                    > > 'Christus' where the 'ch' is pronounced as [x] (if I am not mistaken),
                    > > hence _xr-_ > _r-voiceless_, just as I suppose _sr-_ > _xr-_/_hr-_
                    > > _r-voiceless_.
                    >
                    > The word is of Greek origin. Why would it be taken from Latin where it
                    > is itself a loan?

                    **Well, I am not skilled in these things. I just thought that _María_ seemed
                    to be taken from Latin and so could _Hristo_ be.

                    > Also, in view of Christian-Latin texts and the development
                    > of the word "Christus" in the Romanic languages (_cr-_) I think it was
                    > pronounced [kr]. That makes a direct loan from Greek into Quenya even
                    > more likely, I'd say.

                    **I may be wrong but I have always thought it was pronounced
                    [xr-] in Greek, since Greek had the [x] sound, and this pronunciation
                    was used in Latin, too. I may be wrong, of course.

                    [on _hl, hr_ etc. in Old English:]

                    > 1) They are biphonemic combinations as can be gleaned from their use in
                    > alliterative verse. These _h_'s go back to pre-Germanic _k_.

                    **I see. I suspected it was so.

                    > 2) I don't think this is where Tolkien got the inspiration. At least
                    > not in the case of _hl_ and _hr_ which < *_sl_ and *_sr_. I'd warrant
                    > the guess that the sounds (voiceless _l_ and _r_), were suggested to
                    > him by Welsh.

                    **Thanks for the information. I do not know any Welsh but I
                    know a little bit Old English, so this is why I thought so.
                    Anyway, what is the phonologic status of _hr_ and _hl_ in Welsh
                    then? And are you suggesting that they are reflexes of _sl_ and
                    _sr_?


                    Ales Bican
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