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685Re: [Lambengolmor] Sindarin pronouns in -n ?

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  • Beregond. Anders Stenstr�m
    Jun 14, 2004
      David Kiltz wrote:

      > 2) Phonetically, I simply don't know whether _*an-e_ > _aen_.

      Neither do I. In a previous post I suggested *_an-i_ > _aen_,
      but I now doubt it. More normally *_an-i_ would > *_ain_, and
      the occurrence of _phain_ in the same text as _aen_ (the King's
      Letter, IX:128-131) is an obstacle to any argument for *_an-i_
      that might be advanced.

      If _aen_ is to be analyzed as a compound with _an_ as its first
      element, perhaps the second element could be from the relative
      root YA- (in Etymologies, and see VT43:16)..

      > (1) Doing so would, IMHO, be the same as to argue that 'to feed' takes
      > an indirect object (dative) because it can be paraphrased as 'give food
      > (to sb.) or 'to ask' as it may be paraphrased as 'to put a question to
      > sb.' etc..

      I did not suggest that 'call, name' can be paraphrased as 'use as
      a name', but that the S verb _est(a)-_ might, for all we know,
      actually mean 'use as a name' and not 'call', despite Tolkien's use
      of _called_ in his translation of the phrase. As you noted in your
      discussion with David Salo, the translation may not be so literal as
      to gloss each word exactly.

      There is a gloss "name" given for Q _esta-_ (VT45:12), but I do
      not think there is an authorial gloss for its S cognate.

      If _est(a)-_ has the name as its direct object, it would be
      comparable (not quite similar) to the verb _nominalize_.


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