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579Re: Pronunciation and writing of _r_ in Quenya

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  • Helios De Rosario Martinez
    Jan 5, 2004
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      Edouard Kloczko wrote:

      > I read here "originally occurring in Quenya" as meaning "originally
      > occurring in Common Eldarin (?)or/and Primitive Quendian", e.g.
      > *not* in Quenya as the living language of Aman and later in Exile,
      > in which we had only one trilled r.

      That was also the idea I wrote in my previous post.
      But how do you know that the "weak" _r_ did not exist in the Quenya of
      Aman?

      We know that Quenya changed while the Noldor were in Aman (see for
      example the change _þ_ > _s_ as commented in _The Shibboleth of Fëanor_),
      so I think that we cannot discard the idea that the weak _r_ existed when
      Fëanor invented the tengwar (unless we have any statement by Tolkien
      on this, but I don't know its existence).

      > There was no such thing as a "Third Age" Quenya (of the Eldar): e.g.
      > a dialect used in the T.A. as distinct of the one spoken by the
      > Eldar in the First or the Second Age. This is clearly stated by
      > Tolkien in his letter to Dick Plotz.

      I don't have the text of that famous letter, but that sounds
      interesting. Can anyone provide the citation?

      Thanks
      Helios.

      [Indeed, Edouard ought to have been required to provide the evidence
      for his assertion. Sorry for the moderatorial lapse. CFH]
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