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Rhetorical-philosophical questions

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  • Bob Lane
    Why do scholars who should know better continue to use begs the question when they mean raises the question ? I have come to expect that solecism from
    Message 1 of 1 , Sep 13, 2000
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      Why do scholars who should know better continue to use "begs the
      question" when they mean "raises the question"? I have come to expect
      that solecism from television news readers, but not from the learned
      NT scholar.

      Isn't "pre-existing" a perfectly clear concept? E.g., "He had a pre-
      existing condition that caused his heart attack," or "The windowless
      monad that is sufficient for Jesus pre-existed Jesus and is eternal."
      Both statements, of course, depend upon a particular set of beliefs
      about the way things are, but cash out as A causes B.

      Bob Lane
      Philosophy
      Malaspina University-College
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