John 6:4 The Jewish Passover Feast was near.
- Conclusion based on input received (Thank you)
The mention of a Jewish Passover in John 6:4 (4The Jewish Passover
Feast was near.f) is difficult to understand. Why did John mention a
Passover of which he says, absolutely, nothing? For every other feast he
tells us something that happened. Even for the feast with no name
(probably Shavuot) he tells of a miracle performed. Even for the Feast
of the Dedication when he is not obligated to be in Jerusalem, he does
go and converses with the Pharasees. Yet for the feast of Passover when
Christ is required to be in Jerusalem, John skips all discussion.
Based on the comments that Wieland made stating that to John the Feast
is Always near and that the passage is found in nearly all
manuscripts. Also Elizabeths comments on the importance to John of
Christs final sacrifice. I would conclude that John was referring to
the final Passover, which was less than ten months away. It would make
perfect sense if this statement were a foreshadowing or omen of the
events that would happen at that Passover (a countdown of events which
would occur along the way) and explain why he said nothing at that point
but obviously he had much to say at the end. If this is then plausible,
then the one-year plus theory for the length of Christ's ministry is
Any comments are welcomed.