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Re: [John_Lit] Re: John as Title

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  • ProfRam@aol.com
    Another way of putting it is that perhaps the Gospel of John begins the way it does precisely because the author had a tradition of John s pronouncement in
    Message 1 of 3 , Apr 6, 2000
      Another way of putting it is that perhaps the Gospel of John begins the way
      it does precisely because the author had a tradition of John's pronouncement
      in 1:15 and 30. So he put 1:1-5 first and then verse 6 simply in order to
      illustrate v 15, by showing that Jesus preceded John in eternity even though
      John's ministry preceded his in time. Could it possibly be that simple?

      Ramsey Michaels
    • ProfRam@aol.com
      Jeff: I guess this line of argument would suggest that John s historical ministry was not messianic. If something like 1:15 or 1:30 were authentic, it would
      Message 2 of 3 , Apr 6, 2000
        Jeff:

        I guess this line of argument would suggest that John's historical ministry
        was not messianic.

        If something like 1:15 or 1:30 were authentic, it would suggest that John is
        putting someone else ahead of himself, and this would explain why the author
        of the Gospel liked it so well. It was a self-deprecating statement by John
        that he did not create, but on the contrary had some reason to believe was
        authentic. It would thus contribute to the author's own purpose of "putting
        John in his place."

        Ramsey
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