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Judeans

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  • mr_atoz@yahoo.com
    Well, since I do so love stirring things up I d like to give an opinion sure to get me targeted for shoot-down. As we know, the writer of 4G consistantly
    Message 1 of 1 , Jun 15, 2004
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      Well, since I do so love stirring things up I'd like to give an
      opinion sure to get me targeted for shoot-down.
      As we know, the writer of 4G consistantly targeted the blame for all
      of Jesus's troubles on "the Jews". Whereas in the synoptics the
      writers were much more specific when it came to the various 'bad-guys-
      of-the-week' be it the Sadducees, Herodians, Pharisees or even
      individuals, the Johannine writer--with few exceptions--simply
      bombarded "the Jews".
      Many read anti-Semitism into this and while I agree that anti-
      Semitism is present in the NT I hold that John was not in this
      instance. I believe the Johannine writers use of the word "Jews"
      should be rendered "Judeans". A few scholars hold this view as well
      but I know that many do not so I'm hoping to aggravate.....er,
      ahem,...that is to say I was hoping to SOLICIT the opinions of the
      rest of this august group on this topic.
      I agree with those scholars who believe the Galileans saw themselves
      as the remnant/successors/rightful heirs of the northern Israelites
      and that it was this distinction that "John" was making with his use
      of the term "Judeans".
      Alright, I'm now carrying my bullet-proof couch so fire away gang.
      --Wayne
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