- Well, since I do so love stirring things up I'd like to give an
opinion sure to get me targeted for shoot-down.
As we know, the writer of 4G consistantly targeted the blame for all
of Jesus's troubles on "the Jews". Whereas in the synoptics the
writers were much more specific when it came to the various 'bad-guys-
of-the-week' be it the Sadducees, Herodians, Pharisees or even
individuals, the Johannine writer--with few exceptions--simply
bombarded "the Jews".
Many read anti-Semitism into this and while I agree that anti-
Semitism is present in the NT I hold that John was not in this
instance. I believe the Johannine writers use of the word "Jews"
should be rendered "Judeans". A few scholars hold this view as well
but I know that many do not so I'm hoping to aggravate.....er,
ahem,...that is to say I was hoping to SOLICIT the opinions of the
rest of this august group on this topic.
I agree with those scholars who believe the Galileans saw themselves
as the remnant/successors/rightful heirs of the northern Israelites
and that it was this distinction that "John" was making with his use
of the term "Judeans".
Alright, I'm now carrying my bullet-proof couch so fire away gang.