Re: "water" symbolism
- --- In firstname.lastname@example.org, "Mike Grondin"
> --- Matthew Estrada wrote:prophets.
> > Jn 2: the "water" (the Law and the Prophets) is changed into
> > "wine" (the Holy Spirit).
> Logically, and in the context of the story, this interpretation
> makes no sense to me. In addition, I think it's inconsistent with
> the supposed famine motif. To say that they are now out of wine
> implies that they had wine in the past - probably from the
> To now turn around and say that the entirety of the L&P was "water"My response:
> contradicts and thus subverts the coherence of the story. The new
> wine may be the best wine, but that doesn't make the old wine water.
I do not see the inconsistency that you see, Mike. Yes, they did
have "wine" (God's presence/Spirit) before, but not "without limit"
(Jn 3:34, thus the abundance of "wine" = Holy Spirit), but even
this "limited" presence has been removed from Israel during the 400
silent years, which Amos predicts in Amos 8:11-12. Thus the "wine"
has been snatched from them (Joel 1:5), but only to be given back to
them at a later time (Joel 2:19, 24; 3:18). And "yes", it was
via "the Law and the Prophets" (the water). But "the Law and the
Prophets" is not "the wine" (God's Spirit). They are the vehicle that
God the Father used to manifest Himself (His
presence=limited "wine"). When the "water" (the Law and the Prophets)
is changed into the "new wine", what we have is a change
in "dispensations". God the Father's means of revelation has now
passed to God the Holy Spirit's time of revelation in which God's
presence is "poured out on all" (Joel 2:29). How? Via the Cana
Miracle- the death and resurrection of Christ.