Re: [John_Lit] Jesus' mother Mary and Golgotha
You have a point. I submit that whether one agrees with my use
of the passage from the Gospel of Thomas to explain male pronouns
in reference to female characters or not, the interpretation of John
19: 27 to mean that Jesus is referring to himself as "son" stands.
Yours in Christ's service,
On Thu, 9 Jan 2003 12:48:16 -0800 (PST) Horace Jeffery Hodges
> You say that your . . .
> "interpretation . . . requires that the words of Jesus
> in 19: 27 are addressed to his mother and acknowledge
> to her that he (Jesus) is her son, not, as it is
> usually interpreted, that Jesus is indicating that the
> BD is Mary's son."
> Actually, calling Mary of Bethany the 'son' of Mary
> the mother of Jesus should be no problem given your
> hermeneutic point about . . .
> "the Gospel of Thomas (114) where "women are said by
> Simon Peter to be unworthy of life; Jesus responds
> that they can become 'male.'"
> If you interpret the masculine pronouns that refer to
> the Beloved Disciple as indicating a masculinized Mary
> of Bethany, then the same could hold for the noun
> "son" as a masculine substitution for "daughter."
> Not that I agree with you.
> Jeffery Hodges
> Assistant Professor Horace Jeffery Hodges
> Hanshin University (Korean Theological University)
> 447-791 Kyunggido Osan-City
> Yangsandong 411
> South Korea
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