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[John_Lit] Re: the adelphoi

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  • ProfRam@aol.com
    In Jn 20:17, the matter of direct vs. indirect discourse is rather a tough call. But it seems to me it has to be indirect because Mary is not told to say, I
    Message 1 of 9 , Nov 4, 1999
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      In Jn 20:17, the matter of direct vs. indirect discourse is rather a tough
      call. But it seems to me it has to be indirect because Mary is not told to
      say, "I am ascending" (*she* is obviously not ascending), but either "He is
      ascending" or "He said, 'I am ascending.'"

      Thus I would translate, "Go to my brothers and tell them that I am ascending
      to my Father and your Father, and my God and your God." This leaves open
      just a crack the possibility that Mary might be included in the "your," but
      even as indirect discourse the possibility is remote at best. The play
      between "brothers" and "Father" tells against it, as does the accent on the
      fact that Mary is to say it "to them" (autois).

      Just by the way, notice also the abrupt shift from direct to indirect
      discourse in v 18, a shift which seems to have bothered the scribes so that
      they tried out a couple of variants: Mary told the disciples that "'I have
      seen the Lord,' and he said these things to her."

      Ramsey Michaels
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