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Re: [John_Lit] architriklinos once more

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  • John Lupia
    ... Jeffrey, you made a lapsus calami. Yuri called the architriklinos the master of the house , which is incorrect. I think you accidentally used his
    Message 1 of 39 , Jul 3 9:20 PM
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      Jeffrey B. Gibson wrote:
      > As is shown in
      > PCair.Zen.48.2, IG5(1).40, 1235, IGRom.4.1699,
      > TAM2.518 and texts in Plato
      > and Xenophon (to name only a few instances of the
      > term in question), a
      > "master of the house" was indeed a "servant of the
      > house", since often -- if
      > not, indeed, ordinarily -- the person who held the
      > position of "master of the
      > house" was a **slave**.
      >


      Jeffrey, you made a lapsus calami. Yuri called the
      architriklinos the "master of the house", which is
      incorrect. I think you accidentally used his
      incorrect phrase "master of the house" when you meant
      to say architriklinos. The "master of the house" is
      OIKODESPOTHS (cf. Lk 13:25), who is always the owner.

      The fact that the "master of the house" is *not* a
      slave demonstrates that the Syriac which equates the
      architriklinos as the master errs here showing it *is*
      later and does not reflect a coherent knowledge of the
      culture of the first century since it was written much
      later on when these things were no longer known and
      understood.

      Best regards,
      John

      =====
      John N. Lupia
      501 North Avenue B-1
      Elizabeth, New Jersey 07208-1731 USA

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    • heronblu
      ... Michael, I am more of a student than a scholar of the fourth gospel. Nevertheless, even (maybe, especially) students have opinions, too. It would indeed
      Message 39 of 39 , Jul 9 11:19 PM
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        --- In johannine_literature@y..., michael Hardin <michael1517@y...>
        wrote:
        >
        > For some time now I have been studying the usage of
        > words with 'double meanings' in 4G. I am curious to
        > know if others have also found the 'author's' use of
        > words that have a double meaning to be of value . . . .

        Michael, I am more of a student than a scholar of the fourth
        gospel. Nevertheless, even (maybe, especially) students have
        opinions, too. It would indeed be an interesting and controversial
        study to tabulate and classify the most obvious ones. The most
        frequent reason I can see for the double (and sometimes more)
        meanings is in support of the Johannine technique I call "dialogues
        with dummies." The poor sap who is shown as questioning Jesus almost
        always misunderstands what Jesus is telling him and, regarding words
        with more than one possible meaning, only gets the infelicitous one
        and is blind to what Jesus is actually saying. Jesus is then given
        the opportunity to explain further for the benefit of the intended
        audience. (The dummy is almost never shown as ever getting the
        point.) I think this goes so far as to include instances in which
        both meanings have to be in the listener/reader's mind in order to
        have any hope of following Jesus. Perhaps the most obvious example
        is John 3:3. Nicodemus interprets *gennhth anwthen* as meaning
        only "born again." The usually excellent NAB makes the opposite
        error, interpreting the words as meaning only "born from above." A
        proper understanding, in my opinion, requires that Jesus be
        understood as meaning both things. One must be reborn in the Spirit
        in order to see the kingdom of God.

        To say the same thing with different words, I think that the author
        wants his or her audience to think and not to merely swallow dogma.
        He is as much as saying that just as Jesus is more than appears on
        the surface, Jesus' message is more profound than surface appearances
        might lead one to believe.
        Yours in Christ,
        Lou
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