Re: [John_Lit] Jews etc
- Dear Frank,
Sorry to take so long to reply to your message of Dec. 9.
I'm saying that I believe the author(s) of the Gospel of John used
the word "Jew" to represent the establishment, the rulers, of
Jerusalem, including the High Priest, the Chief Priests, the nobles
and other high officials. I'm suggesting that Neh. 2: 16 is the likely
source of that term, used that way, since I think it can be understood
that way in that context.
Ezra 37: 14-44 tells how the people of the tribes of Judah and
Benjamin dealt with the problem perceived to have offended God
(marrying foreign women). The heads of families, selected by
Ezra the priest, identified each family in which this offense had
occured, then Ezra required them to separate themselves from their
wives, which they did.
The significance of this, of course, is that the context of both
Ezra and Nehemiah is the importance of rebuilding the temple and
reclaiming the relationship with Yahweh, re-establishing the covenant.
To accomplish this, leaders (in this case, leaders of families) were
entrusted with the work. When Nehemiah arrives and inspects the
walls to be rebuilt, he does so under cover of darkness and without
notifying or involving that leadership core. He recognizes who they
are, but he does not depend upon them, nor assist them. He sets
about his task independently, then enlists them in accomplishing the
task they have tried to start, but accomplishing it under his guidance.
I see the Jews in the FG being considered in this same way. They
are recognized as leaders, officials, but Jesus has a mission to fulfill
which involves the destruction and re-construction of the temple.
He is not excluding them, but does not depend upon them or assist
them in doing what they want to do. He does what must be done
in the way he must, calling them forth to follow him. Much of this
is revealed in the story of the raising of Lazarus in Jn. 11: 1-54.
Yours in Christ's service,
On Sun, 09 Dec 2001 09:44:28 +1100 RHS <diadem@...> writes:
> To Frank McCoy.
> The word 'Jew' is not used in I Maccabees 5:21-23. There is only a
> To Tom Butler.
> Thanks for all the info. I'm still puzzled. Are you saying that the
> 'Jew' in this one place in Neh. 2:16 means 'overseer'?
> You say that it is thus used in Ezra. Which of the following
> to 'Jews' has this meaning? Ezra 4:12,23; 5:1:5; 6:7,8,14. Also in
> Nehemiah 1:2; 2:16; 4:1,2; 5:1,6,17; 6:6; 13:23
> I'm not doubting your main thesis, Tom. I don't have access to the
> Strong you mentioned. But I can't find such a meaning for 'Jew' in
> or TDNT or any commentary I have access to.
> Ross Saunders from DownUnder
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