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indefinite QEOI

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  • toioutous_zatei@yahoo.com
    I am a new member to this group. I have spent sometime trying to located older posts that addressed my forthcoming question, but have been unsuccessful. My
    Message 1 of 1 , Mar 16 4:06 PM
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      I am a new member to this group. I have spent sometime trying to
      located older posts that addressed my forthcoming question, but have
      been unsuccessful.

      My question centers around the JEWISH concept of an indefinite QEOS
      in a context that John 1:1 presents. That is, my question is meant to
      understand "a god" as a possible translation within KAI QEOS HN hO
      LOGOS (John 1:1c).

      It would seem that John presents a temporal reference here that
      precedes the creation of PANTA (this I consider THE TEMPORAL CONTEXT
      of this verse).

      And if one concedes a JEWISH concept of "a god," would not this
      lesser being be part of creation? That is, John presents this LOGOS
      as preexisting the creation of PANTA.

      I am trying to understand how a first century JEW would not consider
      it blasphemy to describe "a god" in a context that presents the state
      of affairs before the creation of PANTA, when presumably only YHWH
      existed.

      Concerning "a god," when would a JEW have placed
      the creation of this lesser being than YHWH?

      Assuming "a god" would be part of creation and therefore not in
      existence prior to the creation of PANTA, in what sense could "a god"
      be understood in the context of John 1:1 (which describes a temporal
      situation prior to the creation of "indefinite QEOI")?

      I hope I have not overly repeated myself here.

      Warm regards,

      Susan Moore
      Sugar Land, Texas
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