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5968RE: [John_Lit] Verbatim agreements between John and the Synoptics

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  • Mardaga, Hellen
    Aug 9, 2011
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      Mark



      What is the literary theory behind it?

      Is it just looking at similarities between the four gospels or is there more?

      There are two german articles that take care of listing all similarities (otto culmann I think). But since you are asking for recent studies, I am not sure you want these.



      H. Mardaga



      ________________________________
      From: johannine_literature@yahoogroups.com [johannine_literature@yahoogroups.com] on behalf of Stephen Carlson [stemmatic@...]
      Sent: Tuesday, August 09, 2011 2:02 PM
      To: johannine_literature@yahoogroups.com
      Subject: Re: [John_Lit] Verbatim agreements between John and the Synoptics



      Mark,

      I don't have any studies off-hand, but I do have a computer program. ;-)

      There's a 9-word agreement ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι εἷς ἐξ ὑμῶν παραδώσει με at
      John 13:21 and Mark 14:48 = Matt 26:21.

      There's a 7-word agreement Ὡσαννά· Εὐλογημένος ὁ ἐρχόμενος ἐν ὀνόματι κυρίου
      at John 12:13 and Mark 11:9 = Psalm 118:25 (LXX 117:26), but without Ὡσαννά.

      There's a 6-word agreement ἀπολύσω ὑμῖν τὸν βασιλέα τῶν Ἰουδαίων at John
      18:39 and Mark 15:9.

      If you want more distinctive words, there is the 3-word agreement μύρου
      νάρδου πιστικῆς at John 12:3 and Mark 14:3.

      Stephen

      There's a case where Matthew is somewhat closer to John than Mark for 8
      words in order, 12 overall:

      Matt 26:11 πάντοτε γὰρ τοὺς πτωχοὺς ἔχετε μεθ’ ἑαυτῶν, ἐμὲ δὲ οὐ πάντοτε
      ἔχετε·

      John 12:8 τοὺς πτωχοὺς γὰρ πάντοτε ἔχετε μεθ’ ἑαυτῶν, ἐμὲ δὲ οὐ πάντοτε
      ἔχετε.

      (Mark 14:7 would have been identical to Matt 26:11, except that there is
      an unparalleled clause in the middle καὶ ὅταν θέλητε δύνασθε αὐτοῖς εὖ
      ποιῆσαι,)

      On Tue, Aug 9, 2011 at 1:25 PM, Mark Goodacre <Goodacre@...<mailto:Goodacre%40gmail.com>> wrote:
      >
      > Are there any good recent studies on examples of verbatim agreement
      > between John and the Synoptics? I am just reflecting on the role
      > played by verbatim agreement in Thomas / Synoptic parallels and
      > thinking about how they compare / contrast with John / Synoptic
      > parallels. Looking at Streeter's list, one of the most impressive
      > examples is Mark 2.9, Ἔγειρε καὶ ἆρον τὸν κράβαττόν σου καὶ περιπάτει
      > in parallel with John 5.8, Ἔγειρε ἆρον τὸν κράβαττόν σου καὶ
      > περιπάτει. That is a six or seven word verbatim agreement, depending
      > on how one counts, and it includes an unusual word (κράβαττόν). But
      > is that the best there is? I'd be particularly interested to hear of
      > any recent bibliography in this area, if anyone knows of any.
      >
      > Thanks
      > Mark
      >
      > --
      > Mark Goodacre
      > Duke University
      > Department of Religion
      > Gray Building / Box 90964
      > Durham, NC 27708-0964 USA
      > Phone: 919-660-3503 Fax: 919-660-3530
      >
      > http://www.markgoodacre.org
      >
      >

      --
      --
      Stephen C. Carlson
      Graduate Program in Religion
      Duke University

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