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5453Re: "hora" in Gospel of John

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  • matt_estrada
    Apr 3, 2006
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      This post is in response to Diane's, Kevin's, and Tom's ponderings
      concerning the meaning of "my hour" in Jn 2. I agree with Tom in
      that the meaning of "my hour" in this text cannot be divorced from
      the meaning where it occurs throughout the gospel. It does refer to
      Jesus' hour of death and resurrection. The question is- why, after
      having stated "My hour has not yet come", does Jesus perform the
      miracle of turning "water" into "wine"? The answer to this question
      lies in interpreting his "hour" to have "come" somewhere between the
      time that he said it had not come (Jn 2:4) and his performing of the
      miracle (Jn 2:8). In other words, Jesus' death and resurrection
      occurs in the filling of the "six stone water jars" with "water".
      One must understand that the author is using "water" to
      symbolize "the Law and the Prophets", and that in the filling of the
      six stone jars (used by the Jews for ceremonial cleansing) with
      this "water", we are actually seeing time pass before our eyes-
      UNTIL the jars are filled "to the brim"- this phrase, in Greek, can
      be interpreted "the end of a period of time" (Gal 4:4). Thus in Jn
      2:8 Jesus can say "NOW, draw some out..." in contrast to the "not
      yet" in Jn 2:4. Jesus' death and resurrection occurs in this text in
      a hidden way, and via his death the "wine"/Holy Spirit is
      provided. "He thus revealed his doxa, and his disciples believed in
      him" (vs 11).


      Matthew Estrada

      --- In johannine_literature@yahoogroups.com, Tom Butler
      <pastor_t@...> wrote:
      > --- kalvachomer <kalvachomer@...> (Kevin)wrote:
      > I came across your earlier response to Diane Yoder in
      > which you wrote:
      > ...
      > > I'm working with the wedding at Cana and having
      > > difficulty with "my hour has not yet come." To what
      > > "hour" could Jesus be referring here? It doesn't
      > > make sense to refer it to Jesus's death.
      > > I suppose it could be taken as the "hour" of >
      > Jesus's own "wedding" to his "bride," the church, >
      > but that seems a bit strained, particularly for the >
      > late first century.
      > > What do you make of "hora" in the Cana context?

      >Tom wrote:

      > As I indicated above this "hour" is connected to 23
      > other "hours," so the answer to your question cannot
      > be limited to its meaning in the Cana context. I
      > think the commonly accepted theory, that Jesus is
      > anticipating the hour of his death all the way through
      > the Gospel, is even what it means in the Cana context.
      > Yours in Christ's service,
      > Tom Butler
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