5239Re: [John_Lit] Paraclete
- Sep 27, 2005Elaine wrote:
> From the Aramaic standpoint (and that is the language base weshould be
> dealing with if we are to consider what Jesus may have beensaying), ...
We should at least consider Hebrew in the mix. don't you think,
> we can consider the word 'Malkuta' (generally translatedas 'kingdom', but
> is a feminine word which means 'queen-dom'), Jesus was speaking ofa
> 'queendom' 'within' or 'among' an individual or group ofindividuals.
Pardon me, but why ever would you say that MALKUTA in Aramaic
means "queen-dom"? On the basis of it's *grammatical* gender? Not a
sturdy base for making statements such as yours that imply (queen-
dom) that a "queen" would be at the helm of the "dom." :)
Shalom from Manila,
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