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Re: [Jehovah's Witnesses Gathering] Re: Prayer to Jesus

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  • Steve Klemetti
    ... You said: they insert the word other which appears no where in the Greek. Well, if it appeared in the Greek, the it would not have been inserted it
    Message 1 of 139 , Aug 4, 2007
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      alanna garth wrote:
      > Another question Ryck,
      > FOllowing the translation committees 'rule' of using
      > Jehovah for kyrios when it is an OT quote...why is it
      > that Isaiah 45:23 says "By my own self I have
      > sworn—out of my own mouth in righteousness the word
      > has gone forth, so that it will not return—that to me
      > every knee will bend down, every tongue will swear,"-
      > clearly talking about Jehovah!
      > Yet the NWT in its application to Jesus in Phil 2:9
      > &10("For this very reason also God exalted him to a
      > superior position and kindly gave him the name that is
      > above every [other] name, 10 so that in the name of
      > Jesus every knee should bend of those in heaven and
      > those on earth and those under the ground, 11 and
      > every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus
      > Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.") does
      > 2 things! they insert the word "other' which appears
      > no where in the Greek. They add this word which
      > changes the meaning of the verse- Jesus was given a
      > name above ALL- not all others!
      You said: "they insert the word "other' which appears no where in the
      Greek. "

      Well, if it appeared in the Greek, the it would not have been "inserted"
      it would
      have been translated.

      The reason that 'other' is put there is because Jesus could not be given
      a name above every name or all names. If that were the case as you claim,
      he would have to have a name above his own name as that is part of every
      name.
      He could not be given a name above his own name.
      And he could not be given a name above the name of God.


      > And kyrios should be
      > rendered Jehovah, should it (according to the
      > translation committee rules). So much for
      > consistency. What should the verse say using
      > consitant application of the translation committee's
      > rule?
      >
      Where are these such rules?

      > openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is ((((Jehovah)))
      > to the glory of God the Father.")
      >
      The context of the use of the word "lord - kyrios" is not a proper noun but
      the common noun for lord.
    • jehovahswitnessesgathering@yahoogroups.co
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      Message 139 of 139 , Aug 20, 2011
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        Hello,

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