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Stanley Cup final 1968

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  • J.P. Martel
    Does anyone know why the St. Louis Blues had the home-ice advantage for that first-expansion-year final? Was it decided ahead of time, as a bonus for the new
    Message 1 of 4 , Jun 29, 2004
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      Does anyone know why the St. Louis Blues had the home-ice advantage
      for that first-expansion-year final?

      Was it decided ahead of time, as a bonus for the new teams (and
      perhaps also out of fear that, if the first two games were
      blowouts for the East division finalist, the people wouldn't
      bother attending the 3rd and 4th games in the West division
      finalist's arena)?

      Or was it just due to a scheduling conflict? Should the series
      have required more than 4 games, was the structure of the
      series the traditional 2-2-1-1-1?

      Thanks,

      J.-Patrice
    • Natalie Sekuler
      I attended the first two games of the finals in St. Louis in 1968, and it was my understanding that the home-ice advantage was a bonus given to the new teams.
      Message 2 of 4 , Jun 29, 2004
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        I attended the first two games of the finals in St. Louis in 1968, and it was my understanding that
        the home-ice advantage was a bonus given to the new teams. The fear of a blowout in the first two
        games by the East team wasn't specifically given as a reason, but I'm sure that was a major
        factor. To the best of my knowledge, there were no scheduling conflicts.

        Interestingly, game one only had about 11,000 fans out of 16,000 capacity attending, not because of
        a lack of interest, but because of a rumor that the game was sold out when it wasn't - they only
        had one and a half days after winning the West title to sell many of the tickets, and many fans
        stayed away from the box office as a result. The Blues advertised heavily in the media for game
        two, and it did sell out.

        Larry Sekuler

        "J.P. Martel" wrote:

        > Does anyone know why the St. Louis Blues had the home-ice advantage
        > for that first-expansion-year final?
        >
        > Was it decided ahead of time, as a bonus for the new teams (and
        > perhaps also out of fear that, if the first two games were
        > blowouts for the East division finalist, the people wouldn't
        > bother attending the 3rd and 4th games in the West division
        > finalist's arena)?
        >
        > Or was it just due to a scheduling conflict? Should the series
        > have required more than 4 games, was the structure of the
        > series the traditional 2-2-1-1-1?
        >
        > Thanks,
        >
        > J.-Patrice
        >
        >
        > To unsubscribe from this mail list, send a blank message to hockhist-unsubscribe@yahoogroups.com
        >
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      • zpmboca@aol.com
        In a message dated 6/30/2004 12:10:24 AM Eastern Daylight Time, natsek@earthlink.net writes: ... This was also my recollection, i.e. that the league realized
        Message 3 of 4 , Jun 29, 2004
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          In a message dated 6/30/2004 12:10:24 AM Eastern Daylight Time,
          natsek@... writes:>
          >
          >
          >
          > I attended the first two games of the finals in St. Louis in 1968, and it
          > was my understanding that
          > the home-ice advantage was a bonus given to the new teams. The fear of a
          > blowout in the first two
          > games by the East team wasn't specifically given as a reason, but I'm sure
          > that was a major
          > factor. To the best of my knowledge, there were no scheduling conflicts.
          >
          > Interestingly, game one only had about 11,000 fans out of 16,000 capacity
          > attending, not because of
          > a lack of interest, but because of a rumor that the game was sold out when
          > it wasn't - they only
          > had one and a half days after winning the West title to sell many of the
          > tickets, and many fans
          > stayed away from the box office as a result. The Blues advertised heavily
          > in the media for game
          > two, and it did sell out.
          >
          > Larry Sekuler
          >

          This was also my recollection, i.e. that the league realized the expansion
          clubs needed some kind of advantage like this to have even a remote chance of
          being competitive. We all know how well that worked.

          Z. Peter Mitchell


          [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
        • J.P. Martel
          ... Thanks to Larry and you for the reply. To be fair, the Blues did appear to be competitive, since all four games were decided by only one goal, two of them
          Message 4 of 4 , Jun 30, 2004
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            > --- In hockhist@yahoogroups.com, zpmboca@a... wrote:
            > This was also my recollection, i.e. that the league realized
            > the expansion clubs needed some kind of advantage like this to
            > have even a remote chance of being competitive. We all know how
            > well that worked.

            Thanks to Larry and you for the reply.

            To be fair, the Blues did appear to be competitive, since all
            four games were decided by only one goal, two of them in overtime.

            J.-Patrice
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