[HJMatMeth] Re: Greek Q and Aramaic Jesus
Brian McCarthy wrote:
Dom, As we come to the end of this many-sided discussion, a big word of thanks to you and to Jeffrey and Mahlon. Here is my final question: I have not followed Q studies in detail, the SBL Q Seminar, the International Q Project etc. But each time i have come across some Q discussion it has always concerned some Greek entity. This is fine for gospel experts, who are working back from Greek texts--and whose Greek in most cases is probably far better than their Aramaic--but how can Questers justify the great unbalance between, on the one hand, the major investment of energy in Greek Q and on the other the lack--comparative? total?--of attempts to bridge the the chasm between Greek Q and Jesus' popular teaching, presumably in Aramaic (or Hebrew, or a mix)?
I'll copy and move this to Xtalk for my comments and hope others do the same with the wealth of foundational
material we have accumulated from the HJ Seminar. Mahlon and I have discussed this very situation in the
past as it relates to his and my interest in 4G and my perception of an imbedded translational Greek
"proto-John" that was originally an Aramaic narrative. The context of our discussion was my interest in
how the ""follow the Aramaic" tool was used when the various sayings were considered as whether or
not genuinely Yeshuine. My understanding was that this tool was not as utilized as much as it could have
been, IMO, to be helpful.
If you dont mind my giving an example, I will use the saying cited by Luke (14:26)
"If any [man] come to me, and hate not his father, and mother, and wife, and
children, and brethren, and sisters, yea, and his own life also, he cannot be my disciple."
and GOT #55:
Jesus said, "Whoever does not hate father and mother cannot be my disciple, and whoever does not hate
brothers and sisters, and carry the cross as I do, will not be worthy of me."
The Greek for "hate" in Luke is MISEI and the Coptic for "hate" in GOT is MECTE.
The JS voted this saying as improbable (gray). When I consider that the Aramaic for "hate" is
<Aram>snh (saneh) that is also an idiom (only in Aramaic) for "set aside" I am left with
the Aramaism of mistranslation which compels me to view this as genuinely Yeshuine. It
also make me think that Coptic GOT was translated from a Greek document.
For example what Aramaic lay behind the tou theou of he basileia tou theou? Was it the equivalent i) of El or Elohim or of ii) or YHWH (or one of its pious replacements)?
The questions would then arise of i) the possible implications of Jesus' choice of one of these alternatives over the other, and ii) of the fact that we probably cannot determine which he chose? But this is simply an example and should not distract from the basic question of why the lack of efforts to bridge the linguistic gap and reconstitute Jesus' own words?
I have run into this in discussions on all the forums. NT scholars are primarily Graecists and many
get quite red in the face at even the mention of Aramaic and the notion (which I consider indisputable)
that Jesus' spoken lingua franca was Aramaic.
Please reply on Xtalk.Jack
taybutheh d'maran yeshua masheecha am kulkon
sharing a meal for free.