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Re: [hegel] Re: the death of God

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  • greuterb
    ... Alan, Now we are at the point again we discussed since more than 10 years. Hegel wrote several times in his work (please do not insist on quotations) that
    Message 1 of 168 , Jul 27, 2011
      Am 27.07.2011 06:51, Alan writes:

      > Hi Bob,
      >
      > You cover a lot of ground here. I will focus on a few points.
      > ...............
      >
      > You then go on to say:
      >
      > "You have never explained why Hegel bothers to include Religion as one of
      > the three phases of Absolute Spirit. I don't think you ever will,
      > because to
      > do so would require that you take Religion seriously as more than a
      > convenient "allegory" for something that really has nothing to do with
      > religion as commonly understood. Nor have you explained why Hegel
      > describes
      > philosophy and religion as having the same "content.""
      >
      > ...................
      >
      > So you ask why does Hegel say philosophy and religion have the same
      > content?
      > I notice you do not answer your own question. I suspect it is because you
      > believe that it is evident that this means that they are quite close. But
      > this is a Hegelian joke. The understanding and speculative reason
      > share the
      > same content: the truth. What they do not share is the same form. Form
      > makes
      > all the difference for Hegel. For the understanding form is abstract. It
      > represents. Philosophy and religion share the same content: the
      > absolute or
      > the identity of being and significance. But religion represents the
      > absolute
      > whereas philosophy emerges at the point that representation breaks
      > down. The
      > absolute form - unlike the religious absolute - creates at the point of
      > breakdown by providing the insight into absolute form that becomes new
      > content. What Hegel never says but which is implied by everything else he
      > says is that the religious absolute is sterile. It does not because it
      > cannot create since creation involves a dual focus allowing for a
      > recollective insight which is the creative event. It is something only man
      > is capable of. Religion pictures creation. But only man creates.
      >
      > I will stop here.
      >
      > regards, Alan
      >



      Alan,

      Now we are at the point again we discussed since more than 10 years.
      Hegel wrote several times in his work (please do not insist on
      quotations) that religion and philosophy have the same 'content'. From
      this Paul and Bob and others conclude that the Logic is 'religion' in
      philosophical (logical) form. Your reply is not bad, better I think as
      my several attempts since 10 years. Nevertheless, is your answer also
      sufficient? Your write: "The absolute form - unlike the religious
      absolute - creates at the point of breakdown by providing the insight
      into absolute form that becomes new content." I take this as 'the
      philosophical absolute (pure) knowledge develops its own (new) content
      from which the form cannot be separated but is (like the content) a
      moment of the absolute. This I think is consistent with what Hegel's
      concept of the absolute claims. However, Hegel says "the same content".
      He does not write 'new content'. You say that this is a "Hegelian joke".
      But why a joke? Hegel is a serious philosopher. In such an important
      philosophical question he usually does not make jokes. But according to
      what you write here and to what I wrote several times in recent years
      the answer is quite easy: In the expressions "same content" and 'new
      content' 'content' does not mean the same. In the first expression it
      only means 'issue' or' topic' or 'subject-matter' or 'aim' or 'result'
      etc. as a general characterization of what is at stake in the forms of
      absolute spirit: 'the absolute', 'the truth', 'the whole'. In the second
      expression, however, it is said how this general issue is carried out or
      developed or appears (not merely as form but as well as content), and
      here there is no longer sameness but otherness. This does not mean that
      religion is perished in philosophy. Quite the opposite: it has further
      on its own right regarding form and content. With this Hegel avoids
      both: that religion becomes the servant of philosophy (i.e. deism) as
      well as that philosophy becomes the servant of religion (i.e. philosophy
      in the Middle Ages). But it means that religion has lost its
      absoluteness for explaining the world *). This now is the task of
      philosophy which takes the absolute as the conceptual movement of
      reality in all its manifestations (today the particular sciences
      extrapolating from their results to the whole try to adopt this task,
      but it is hopeless).

      *) You write: "What Hegel never says but which is implied by everything
      else he says is that the religious absolute is sterile." With this I do
      not agree.

      Regards,
      Beat Greuter


      [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
    • john
      ... Dear Stephen, Of course I don t really know much of anything about all this. Just looking on the internet, I see that there are about 50,000 Jews in
      Message 168 of 168 , Aug 11, 2011
        --- In hegel@yahoogroups.com, stephen theron <stephentheron@...> wrote:
        >
        >
        > John,
        >
        > Well there is still a German-speaking Jewish population although it is for the time being much smaller.
        > Besides which, there are others who are surely interested.
        > I see the irony of course.
        >
        > Stephen.


        Dear Stephen,

        Of course I don't really know much of anything about all this. Just looking on the internet, I see that there are about 50,000 Jews in Germany now. But it seems they mainly arrived after the fall of the USSR, and they don't know any more about Judaism or the Bible than dogs or cats.

        I believe most Protestants use a revised version of the Luther translation, and Catholics use a translation which just _isn't_ the Luther translation.

        The interesting thing about the Buber-Rosenzweig Bible is that it attempts to capture, not only the content, but also the form. It tries to stay as close to the actual form of the Hebrew Bible as it is possible to do in German. There is an English translation of the first five books following the Buber-Rosenzweig translation. But apparently German is much more amenable to this sort of thing than is English.

        So, anyway, Scholem asked if this translation, whose audience ceased to exist as it was being prepared, would, nontheless, find an audience. One might think that, fifty years later, Scholem's question could be answered. Did the work find an audience? Is it still in print? Does it now have an audience? Have there been, and are there now, people actively engaged in reading it?

        Of course it may just be too early yet to know. My view is that, just on principle, this should become the standard translation of the OT in German for both Protestants and Catholics. And all Germans who fancy themselves to be the least bit cultured, even if they aren't religious, should also have a copy of this translation and study it, just as they have and study Homer or the Greek play-writes. I don't believe I'm asking too much.

        John
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