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1280Re: [hegel] Immortality of the soul

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  • Paul Trejo
    Jun 8, 2003
      Dear Birte:

      Hegel has a rational argument regarding the
      immortality of the soul, but in my judgment it
      only makes sense when Hegel's Ontological
      Solution is fully understood. Please follow
      the thread on Hegel's Ontological Solution,
      and at the very end of that thread I'll provide
      a summary of Hegel's logical positions on
      Christian doctrine (and on the doctrines of
      all world religions, including Buddhism,
      Judaism, Hinduism and Islam) as deduced
      from his Proofs of God's Existence and the
      corresponding definition of God that can
      be obtained from his Ontological Argument
      as offered in his late lectures on religion.

      All best,
      --Paul


      ----- Original Message -----
      From: "Birte Schelling" <lassie_de@...>
      To: <hegel@yahoogroups.com>
      Sent: Saturday, June 07, 2003 4:44 PM
      Subject: [hegel] Immortality of the soul


      > Dear List,
      >
      > As there is already a debate about philosophy of religion, I might as well
      > supply this discussion with another question:
      > Since Hegel agreed with most principles of Christianity and tries to
      support
      > Christian religion by philosophical arguments whenever he can, it puzzles
      me
      > that he, as far as I know, never gives an explicit argument for the
      > immortality of the soul, which is a central part of Christian doctrine.
      > A reason for that might be that the concept of the immortality of the
      soul,
      > as it is understood by Christians (i.e. the infinite persistence of
      > individual souls in a world beyond this one) seems to be a classical case
      of
      > the deficient kind of infinity which Hegel criticizes in the section on
      > finitude and infinity in the LOGIC. According to this interpretation, he
      > didn't subscribe to this part of Christian doctrine.
      > But, on the other hand, he gives, again as far as I know, no argument
      > against the immortality of the soul either. Following my interpretation,
      > this might be a result of him disagreeing with that part of Christian
      > doctrine but not wanting to come into conflict with the authorities of his
      > time. I mean, he knew what happened to Fichte. This is of course just some
      > hypothesis I have come up with because I could not think of a better
      > explanation.
      > So does anyone know about a passage where he comments on that problem? And
      > if there really isn't such a passage, could someone comment on the
      > interpretation offered above?
      >
      > Best regards,
      > Birte Schelling
      >
      >
      >
      >
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