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Re: [GTh] Logion 5

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  • Michael Grondin
    ... No. The fact that L5 has Jesus speaking to others has no implication whatsoever about WHAT it is that he is supposed to be saying. Here is a consideration
    Message 1 of 3 , Sep 19, 2007
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      Maurice:
      > When you point out "In L5, however, there's no referent, so it probably
      > means 'what' rather than 'who' ..." it seems to me that because we
      > are dealing with something which Jesus said, it is safe to assume that
      > he is "saying" it to someone as opposed to having said it
      > to "something". Could a translator thus not more safely assume
      > (according to the rules of grammar) that the reference is therefore to
      > a person and not to a thing ?

      No. The fact that L5 has Jesus speaking to others has no implication
      whatsoever about WHAT it is that he is supposed to be saying.

      Here is a consideration you may not have thought about:
      If the first PET- in L5 is about a person (namely, Jesus), then the
      second PET- (in PEQHP) would seem to have to be also, as in:

      "Know he who is before you and he who is hidden from you will be revealed"

      I take it that you would want the second PET- to be a 'what' rather than a
      'who', and I think that undercuts your case, and supports the translation
      of the first PET- as a 'what' as well.

      Mike
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