Re: [GTh] Logion 5
> When you point out "In L5, however, there's no referent, so it probablyNo. The fact that L5 has Jesus speaking to others has no implication
> means 'what' rather than 'who' ..." it seems to me that because we
> are dealing with something which Jesus said, it is safe to assume that
> he is "saying" it to someone as opposed to having said it
> to "something". Could a translator thus not more safely assume
> (according to the rules of grammar) that the reference is therefore to
> a person and not to a thing ?
whatsoever about WHAT it is that he is supposed to be saying.
Here is a consideration you may not have thought about:
If the first PET- in L5 is about a person (namely, Jesus), then the
second PET- (in PEQHP) would seem to have to be also, as in:
"Know he who is before you and he who is hidden from you will be revealed"
I take it that you would want the second PET- to be a 'what' rather than a
'who', and I think that undercuts your case, and supports the translation
of the first PET- as a 'what' as well.