Re: [GTh] House of Israel / Judah
> As a general statement, the Thomasine Jesus, of course, seems muchI don't agree with your "of course". In fact, I don't have that impression
> more intolerant than the NT Jesus (c.f. logia 43, 98, 102 etc).
at all. Jesus is plenty intolerant in John's Gospel.
> Could it be, then, that in the Thomas logion on this theme (logionOne possibility is that the Temple was no longer relevant (because
> 71) that the Thomasine Jesus is in fact referring to either "the
> house" of Israel or the "house" of Judah, when speaking thus ????
> Otherwise, why would John use the word "temple" (2.21 But he spoke
> of the temple of his body) while Thomas uses the word "house"
> or "dwelling"...
it was no longer in use) when L5 reached the form in which we find it.
- Hello Mike,
You said "One possibility is that the Temple was no longer relevant
(because it was no longer in use) when L5 reached the form in which we find it."
How do you come to that conclusion ? Are you of the thinking that
Thomas is definitely Post Revolt ? Or because the Thomas Community
was not in Jerusalem ?
What you call a "conclusion" was clearly labelled a "possibility".
I've always been agnostic on date/place of origin, so I'm open to