Re: [GTh] The Names of Mary
- I'm on and off reading a book that covers this very subject....
although its a bit boring so far...strictly academic..so far...
when I am not at work I'll post more...
> Another question that may be affected here is whether or not GTh showsenough familiarity with Hebraic-Christian traditions to be considered the
product of Hebrews
If true this would suggest a trajectory from DSS to GTh, as Hebrews incorporates 1QS themes (especially the Priesthood of Melchizadek).
Michael Grondin <mwgrondin@...> wrote:
An article in our local big-city newspaper has caused me to mull over the
different forms of the name of Mary, as found in the Gospel of Thomas
('Mariham') and the Gospel of Philip (the NT Greek form 'Maria'). Focusing
on the presence or absence of the last 'm' ('Maria' vs. 'Mariam' and its
variants) , and the assertion in the article that 'Maryam' was the form of
the name in the Q'uran, I wondered what could be said about the geographic
location of the various forms of the name. Hopefully, someone here knows
something about this, and can comment on it, but for starters, I consulted
Harper's Bible Dictionary, which has two articles - one on 'Mary' and one on
'Miriam' - the former focusing on various NT characters, the latter on the
sister of Moses and Aaron.
With respect to 'Mary', HBD (article by Winsome Munroe) has this to say:
"Gk. _Maria_ or _Mariam_; Heb. _Marah_, 'bitter' or 'grieved,' or _Miryam_,
'rebellion' ..." (HBD, 1985, p.610)
Right off the bat, this threw cold water on my initial supposition that
'Maria' was the invariant Greek form and thus might be the northern
Mediterranean form (working its way into Spanish, et al), with 'Mariam' (and
its variants with final 'm') the southern Mediterranean form (Hebrew,
Egyptian, etc., working its way into Islam). I didn't do a survey of the NT,
but with the assumption that 'Maria' was the invariant form therein, I
turned to the LXX (Brenton version) and found that Moses' sister was always
called 'Mariam' (why HBD changed it to 'Miriam' is beyond me, but the names
are sufficiently similar not to make a big deal of.) Since the LXX is Greek,
of course, the HBD article on 'Mary' is evidently correct to say that
'Maria' and 'Mariam' were both attested in Greek - though the suspicion
lingers that 'Mariam' might be more of a "Hebraic-Greek". So why did the
authors of GTh use 'Mariham' while the authors GPh used 'Maria'? Is this
still evidence that they came from two different cultures or geographic
locations? Or that GTh is older than GPh (being as how the LXX with its
'Mariam' is older than the NT with its 'Maria')?
Another question that may be affected here is whether or not GTh shows
enough familiarity with Hebraic-Christian traditions to be considered the
product of Hebrews (albeit "Jews No More", as one book-title has it). If
'Mariam' (and its variant 'Mariham' in GTh) was a Hebraic-Greek form, that
may be one indication that that might be so.
Mt. Clemens, MI
The Coptic Gospel of Thomas, saying-by-saying
The Coptic Gospel of Thomas in Context
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