Re: Kingdom vs. rule/reign Re: [GTh] Recent Entries in Judy's Blog
- Hi Mike:Whether it’s the Gospel of Thomas or the Canonical Gospels, the sayings of Jesus have one linguistic root, Aramaic. There are two synonymous phrases used, מלכותא דאלהא and מלכותא דשׁמיא . “Kingdom of God” and Kingdom of the Heavens.” It implies that all of the heavens and the earth is God’s kingdom. The Tanakh mentions God as king on a number of occasions such as 1 Samuel 12:14 עָלֵינוּ וַיהוָה אֱלֹהֵיכֶם מַלְכְּכֶֽם׃ , “..although YHWH your God was your King.”The thought is preserved in the Lord’s prayer where in the Kingdom to come, the will of God would be done איכנא דבשׁמיא אף בארעא “as in the heavens, so on earth.” Heaven does not RULE! It is ruled by the KING of the heavens and earth, God. “Kingdom” is correct.Jack KilmonHouston, TX> Aren't we revisiting here the Jesus Seminar's debates on this subject?I don't think so, Bob. Judy's reason for preferring 'reign/rule' in the Kingdomparables isn't the same as JSem's. But, BTW, the translators of the JSem version(AKA the "Scholar's Version") of GThom (Meyer and Patterson) seem to haveonly grudgingly yielded to their colleagues on this issue. I say that because thetranslations that appear in their subsequent and non-JSem books use 'kingdom'.
commentaries> When the issue arises in GTh, as in 22, 76, & 113, I see no> on the differences between Coptic and Greek, ...I wouldn't expect that in that book. But did you pick on these particular sayingsbecause they had canonical parallels? If so, you missed one where the differenceis stark : #96. Matt and Luke have "the kingdom is like leaven which a womantook ...", while Thom has "the kingdom is like a woman. She took some leaven ..."L96 is in fact the first of three consecutive sayings (L97 and 98 don't have parallels)that evidence a unique tendency in GThom to compare the kingdom to a man orwoman doing something. For whatever reason it was written that way, it focuseson the person using the leaven, rather than on the leaven itself. This isn't universalthroughout GThom (it still has the mustard seed), but it isn't uncommon either -and you don't find it at all in the canonicals, AFAIK.
term?> How would Greek (or Coptic) readers/hearers have viewed thisProbably depends on what kingdoms were brought to mind. Readers sympatheticwith Jewish history, e.g., would recall David and Solomon and probably think thata divinely-ordained king of their own people (unlike King Herod) who ruled in theright way would be a good thing. In any case, a "Kingdom of God" or "Kingdomof the Father" would be something else entirely.Mike
Just got a new Kindle Touch and among the first books I downloaded was "The Gospel of Thomas" by Dr. Ann Nyland of New England, Australia.
She chooses the word "Realm" for mNtero/basileia. Her comments about this are:
"The phrase often translated `Kingdom of God' is correctly the Realm where God's way of doing things happens, where God's will is exercised as God wishes" --Dr. A. Nyland, "The Gospel of Thomas" 2011, loc 253.
Whether "correctly" translated or not, this is her opinion on the matter.
By the way, she also includes canonical parallels to the Gospel of Thomas from "The Source" which is her translation of the Bible.
All of her comments and end-notes in "The Gospel of Thomas" are explanations of the text itself, as she considers herself more of a lexicographer than an theological expositor.