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Re: [GTh] Re: Petr Porkorny on the Gospel of Thomas

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  • Mike Grondin
    Hi Tim, I, too, have read that it was unusual to end a text with gar , but after thinking it over, there doesn t seem to be any good reason why not. Gar is
    Message 1 of 7 , May 23 3:39 PM
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      Hi Tim,
       
      I, too, have read that it was unusual to end a text with 'gar', but after thinking
      it over, there doesn't seem to be any good reason why not. 'Gar' is also used
      in Coptic Thomas, and as far as I know, the rule there is the same as in Greek,
      namely that 'gar' is the second word in a clause or sentence (although it gets
      translated first). Since subject and verb can be packed into the same word in
      both Coptic and Greek, there's nothing innately unusual about a two-word
      clause ending with 'gar', the first word being in this case 'they-were-afraid'.
      Tack this clause onto the end of a sentence to explain the preceding clause
      (e.g., 'they told no one'), and there you have it. (You may have noticed, BTW,
      that I use hyphens to join English words that are packed into a single Coptic/Greek
      word. I've found it to be a useful device to reflect the source structure.)
       
      Mike G.
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