Re: [GTh] Re: Petr Porkorny on the Gospel of Thomas
- Hi Tim,I, too, have read that it was unusual to end a text with 'gar', but after thinkingit over, there doesn't seem to be any good reason why not. 'Gar' is also usedin Coptic Thomas, and as far as I know, the rule there is the same as in Greek,namely that 'gar' is the second word in a clause or sentence (although it getstranslated first). Since subject and verb can be packed into the same word inboth Coptic and Greek, there's nothing innately unusual about a two-wordclause ending with 'gar', the first word being in this case 'they-were-afraid'.Tack this clause onto the end of a sentence to explain the preceding clause(e.g., 'they told no one'), and there you have it. (You may have noticed, BTW,that I use hyphens to join English words that are packed into a single Coptic/Greekword. I've found it to be a useful device to reflect the source structure.)Mike G.