7380Re: [GTh] Th79 vs. Lk 11:27-28 + 23:29
- Feb 2, 2007We find some places in GTh that the same word in GTh has a different meaning in its Synoptic counterparts.
Can somebody tell us what is "Word of God / Father" in singular meant in GTh79 and in the same time making sense to the entire GTh?
This question is open for discussion. Certainly Mark and Mike's comments are most welcome.
----- Original Message ----
From: Mark Goodacre <Goodacre@...>
Sent: Thursday, February 1, 2007 11:58:24 PM
Subject: Re: [GTh] Th79 vs. Lk 11:27-28 + 23:29
On 01/02/07, Michael Grondin <mwgrondin@comcast. net> wrote:
> . . . .I had hoped that she might comment
> on what I take as an essential component of Mark's
> argument, namely that the singular P-LOGOS ('the-
> word') of Th79.2 seems to be at odds not only
> syntactically, but thematically, with other sayings
> which invariably use the plural 'the-words' or
> 'my-words'. This difference between singular
> and plural is emphasized by the fact that only
> in 79.2 is the word LOGOS used, as opposed to
> the equivalent Coptic word.
Thanks very much for this helpful point. I've added a footnote to
draw this out too. It is interesting that we have the sole use of
LOGOS here in Thomas where it usually uses WAxE. Incipit and 1 both
apparently translate LOGOS (plural) in the Greek with WAxE (plural),
though, so I am inclined to agree with you that the most interesting
thing is the singular / plural difference. This is the only place
that Thomas has word (either LOGOS or WAxE) singular, and that is
worth noting, especially when it is characteristic of Luke.
Mark Goodacre Goodacre@duke. edu
Department of Religion
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