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7373Re: [GTh] Th79 vs. Lk 11:27-28 + 23:29

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  • Mark Goodacre
    Feb 1, 2007
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      On 01/02/07, Michael Grondin <mwgrondin@...> wrote:

      > . . . .I had hoped that she might comment
      > on what I take as an essential component of Mark's
      > argument, namely that the singular P-LOGOS ('the-
      > word') of Th79.2 seems to be at odds not only
      > syntactically, but thematically, with other sayings
      > which invariably use the plural 'the-words' or
      > 'my-words'. This difference between singular
      > and plural is emphasized by the fact that only
      > in 79.2 is the word LOGOS used, as opposed to
      > the equivalent Coptic word.

      Thanks very much for this helpful point. I've added a footnote to
      draw this out too. It is interesting that we have the sole use of
      LOGOS here in Thomas where it usually uses WAxE. Incipit and 1 both
      apparently translate LOGOS (plural) in the Greek with WAxE (plural),
      though, so I am inclined to agree with you that the most interesting
      thing is the singular / plural difference. This is the only place
      that Thomas has word (either LOGOS or WAxE) singular, and that is
      worth noting, especially when it is characteristic of Luke.

      Mark
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      Mark Goodacre Goodacre@...
      Associate Professor
      Duke University
      Department of Religion
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