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7373Re: [GTh] Th79 vs. Lk 11:27-28 + 23:29

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  • Mark Goodacre
    Feb 1, 2007
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      On 01/02/07, Michael Grondin <mwgrondin@...> wrote:

      > . . . .I had hoped that she might comment
      > on what I take as an essential component of Mark's
      > argument, namely that the singular P-LOGOS ('the-
      > word') of Th79.2 seems to be at odds not only
      > syntactically, but thematically, with other sayings
      > which invariably use the plural 'the-words' or
      > 'my-words'. This difference between singular
      > and plural is emphasized by the fact that only
      > in 79.2 is the word LOGOS used, as opposed to
      > the equivalent Coptic word.

      Thanks very much for this helpful point. I've added a footnote to
      draw this out too. It is interesting that we have the sole use of
      LOGOS here in Thomas where it usually uses WAxE. Incipit and 1 both
      apparently translate LOGOS (plural) in the Greek with WAxE (plural),
      though, so I am inclined to agree with you that the most interesting
      thing is the singular / plural difference. This is the only place
      that Thomas has word (either LOGOS or WAxE) singular, and that is
      worth noting, especially when it is characteristic of Luke.

      Mark Goodacre Goodacre@...
      Associate Professor
      Duke University
      Department of Religion
      118 Gray Building / Box 90964
      Durham, NC 27708-0964 USA
      Phone: 919-660-3503 Fax: 919-660-3530

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