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4093Re: [GTh] Of/According to Thomas

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  • Miceal Ledwith
    Sep 3, 2001
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      Dear Mike,
      Thanks for your reply. With respect, could I also suggest the following: the third person is a well know "humility" device. I t could just as well leave the question open as resolve it in the sense of Thomas not being or being the author. Consult the similar usage at end of Fourth Gospel, which is being taken both ways by Biblical experts.
      Also it could well have been Thomas's message which might have been put down in writing by a third party, but I think that would not make it the Gospel of someone else.So I do not feel that postion is necessarily "faith based" by which I suppose you mean that it is prejudiced agaisnt evidence. I have not time for that attitude I'm afraid.
      Likewise the absence of any references to being present in Galilee is in harmony with the nature of the text, which as has been pointed out so frequently, contains no reference to Resurrection, miracles, etc..as presumably Q and any possible other sources. It does not mean the author was not there: I think it rather shows his intent was not to produce a story/narrative.
      My issue here is that I prefer to remain on the scholarly level - on both sides of any argument. When the evidence becomes persuasive in my judgment, then that's the time for decision one way or the other. Unless we sray open it can often seal off other very profitable avenues of investigation in the future becasue we prematurely decided an issue.
      Please note that my point in the post was not to say that Thomas could be proven to be the author, but that that he was not the author I do not think can be established with certitude either - that was all I was saying. I still think its an open question.
      Thanks for your many very valuable insights in the pages over the past year,
      Sincerley,
      Miceal Ledwith
      Michael Grondin <mgrondin@...> wrote: In reply to Miceal Ledwith:

      The virtually-unanimous belief among experts that the Apostle Thomas did
      not write GTh derives from the internal evidence of the text as much as
      anything else. In the two places where Thomas is mentioned in the text,
      it's in the third person. In the prologue, it's "he" (Didymos Judas Thomas)
      who wrote down these sayings, and again in Th13, Jesus says so-and-so to
      "him", and Thomas returns to "his" companions. Not 'I/me/my', but
      'he/him/his' throughout. In addition, there's no indication of any special
      historical knowledge on the part of the author which would indicate that he
      had been present during the happenings in Galilee and Judaea in 30 C.E. It
      seems that only faith-based factors would lead one to ignore or minimize
      this evidence from the text itself.

      Regards,
      Mike

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