2428[gthomas] Re: Jewishness of GOT
- Mar 11, 2000At 10:32 AM 03/11/00 -0500, Yuri Kuchinsky wrote:
>When did antisemitic passages get added to our canonical texts? This, toAh, now we're getting somewhere, though not where you want to go. I'll
>me, is the difference between "Jewish-Christian" and "Gentile-Christian"
>in a nutshell.
stipulate that anti-semitism is a sufficient condition for a text having
been written or redacted by Gentile Christians. But it's not a necessary
condition - which means that this criterion fails to establish the
conclusion you want it to.
If a passage is anti-semitic (in the proper sense of that word), it
presumably cannot have been written by a Jewish Christian, but if a text is
NOT anti-semitic, it might still have been written by a Gentile Christian.
In terms of people instead of texts, while all anti-semitic Christians are
Gentiles, not all Gentile Christians are anti-semitic. (And here, of
course, I'm using the word 'Christian' in the sense of anyone who believes
that Jesus had a supernatural nature, whether that person follows the
ethical injunctions attributed to Jesus or not.)
Since I have a feeling I'm not explaining things too well this morning, let
me put it another way. Let's assume that I agree with you that (1') if a
text contains anti-semitisms, then it shows itself to have been written or
redacted by Gentile Xn's. It does NOT follow that (2') if a text does NOT
contain anti-semitisms, then it WASN'T written or redacted by Gentile Xn's.
In terms of symbolic logic:
(1) If A, then B.
(2) If not-A, then not-B.
(1) says that A is a sufficient condition for B, (2) says that it's a
necessary condition. (1) does NOT imply (2). I'm willing to stipulate to
(1), but what you need is (2), and that's what you haven't established.
Therefore, the criterion of anti-semitism does NOT show that GOT is
"Jewish-Christian". It can be "Gentile-Christian" and still not have any
The Coptic Gospel of Thomas, saying-by-saying
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