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Re: The Accusative Absolute (þuk taujandan armaion)

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  • llama_nom
    Thanks for pointing that out, Gerry. I d forgotten Wright s note. So if þuk taujandan is the object of witi , are we to read interpret hva taujiþ
    Message 1 of 2 , Jun 29, 2006
      Thanks for pointing that out, Gerry. I'd forgotten Wright's note. So
      if 'þuk taujandan' is the object of 'witi', are we to read interpret
      'hva taujiþ taihswo þeina' as being in apposition to 'þuk taujandan

      iþ þuk taujandan armaion ni witi hleidumei þeina hva taujiþ taihswo þeina

      "But let not your left hand know about your acts of charity, what your
      right hand does."

      On the question of Latin influence generally, I'd be interested to
      hear any opinions about Marchand's view: "If one restricts oneself to
      the Greek and Latin manuscripts of the bible as Streitberg has done in
      effect, it is natural that one will suspect a great deal of Latin
      influence on the Gothic bible, since the majority of Latin manuscripts
      are Western, the majority of the Greek uncial manuscripts non-Western.
      The appearance of the same readings in the Gothic, Syriac, Armenian
      and Old Church Slavic makes Streitberg's assumption of Latin influence
      unnecessary and unlikely." (Marchand 1957, Review of "Mossé: Manuel de
      la langue gotique: Grammaire, textes, notes, glossaire", Language
      33:2, p. 234).

      Could 'þuk taujandan' have had a Greek model after all, * se de
      poiounta (rather than Streitberg's 'sou de poiountos')? Or is that
      out of the question?

      Llama Nom

      --- In gothic-l@yahoogroups.com, Grsartor@... wrote:
      > Hailai allai,
      > I have followed the contributions under the headings "araaiþei
      aflaiþ" and
      > "gafilhsaggws" and, as often, been full of admiration for the
      erudition they
      > evince. There is one small contribution I may be able to make to all
      this. It is
      > about the absolute construction in Gothic. In his writing on 14.6.06
      > mentions the accusative absolute as found in
      > þuk taujandan armaion [ni witi hleidumei þeina hwa taujiþ taihswo
      > (Matt. 6:3)
      > Wright has an interesting remark about this on page 292 of his
      Grammar of the
      > Gothic Language. He states that it is not, in fact, an absolute
      > but that "þuk" is the object of "witi", and two Latin manuscripts of
      > Gospels have the same construction, using "te facientem" for "þuk
      taujandan". The
      > implication is that the Gothic has followed the Latin rather than
      the genitive
      > absolute of the Greek. William Bennett, on page 94 of his
      Introduction to the
      > Gothic Language, admits as possible both Wright's view and that the
      > construction in question may be an accusative absolute.
      > I myself am happier thinking the construction is an accusative
      > since I am not sure I can make proper sense of the Gothic on
      Wright's view; but my
      > inability to understand is not an argument.
      > Gerry T.
      > [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]
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