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Re: medial b

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  • llama_nom
    ... you ... are ... form ... which ... Fredrik, I just came across a paper about the origin of the tones used in modern Scandinavian languages [
    Message 1 of 27 , Jun 28, 2006
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      --- In gothic-l@yahoogroups.com, "Fredrik" <gadrauhts@...> wrote:

      > Now when talking bout pronunciation I must ask about something I
      > really dont know anything about, and therefor not any terminology.
      > It is about tones.
      >
      > Coz I dont know any names for tones I try to describe it and hope
      you
      > know enough swedish to understand me :)
      >
      > In swedish there are these two word "stället" and "stället" which
      are
      > pronounced almost the same. The only difference is the tones.
      > Both words are singular definite forms and the first is definite
      form
      > of "ställ" ( = rack) and the second of "ställe" ( = place).
      >
      > If you know the difference of the tones in these definite forms
      which
      > one is used in gothic.
      > I think I pronounce gothic very much as how it would be in swedish,
      > with the tones I mean.


      Fredrik, I just came across a paper about the origin of the tones used
      in modern Scandinavian languages [
      http://www.hum.uit.no/a/bye/Papers/pitch-accent-kluw.pdf ]. I haven't
      read it all yet, but it discusses two theories. In one the two
      lexical tone patterns could go back to c. 800, in the other theory to
      c. 1000 or soon after. The paper argues in favour of the later date.
      The reason that the system isn't thought to be earlier than this is
      that the distinction in the modern Scandinavian languages corresponds
      to the syllabic pattern of the word in Old Norse: words with one
      syllable in Old Norse gave rise to one tone pattern, words with more
      syllables to the other (the suffixed definite article isn't counted,
      so words that had one syllable in Old Norse + the definite article
      still have the tone of one syllable words). But in the 4th c. North
      Germanic still had many unstressed syllables that had been lost by
      800-1000, so the different syllabic structures which correspond to the
      different tones had yet to emerge at the time when the Gothic bible
      was translated. Although Gothic had lost a few more of these
      unstressed syllables than North Germanic at this time (Go. hunds : NG
      hundaz), it still didn't have exactly the same syllabic patterns as
      Old Norse (Go. sunus : ON sonr/sunr), so presumably it didn't have
      exactly the same tone distinction found nowadays in Norway and Sweden.
      Of course Gothic might have distinguished words by tone using a
      system of its own similar to the one that appeared later in
      Scandinavia, or maybe it didn't. We'll probably never know.

      Llama Nom
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