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[gothic-l] R: Origins of the Goths Redux

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  • Elena Alcamesi
    Is not the linguistic evidence too weak in comparison with the archeological one? I don t know very much about linguistic corrispondences between Gothic and
    Message 1 of 2 , Mar 3, 1999
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      Is not the linguistic evidence too weak in comparison with the archeological
      one? I don't know very much about linguistic corrispondences between Gothic
      and Old Gutnic, but I think linguistic interferences are very frequent and
      natural when two people live in contact with each other and trade is a
      catalyst in these cases. Can't linguistic features as the opening of -u-
      before -r- (ex. Got. haurn, OGut. horn), or the meaning of Got. and OGut.
      lamb "sheep" in opposition to AIsl. (where the same word means "lamb") be
      attributed to simple contact between two people?

      I think the archeological arguments are now stronger than linguistic ones
      and the continental origin seems the current opinion.
      Wolfram himself, who seems very influenced by Jordanes in several cases,
      says that the Scandinavian origin has to be believed not ¬ďas a hard fact but
      as motif of a saga" (the memory of the Amals). (Wolfram, History of the
      Goths, p. 36). But he also writes: "with caution, we can say that at the
      beginning of the Amal tradition stood a Scandinavian ethnogenesis that the
      family tree of the Amali presented as a theogony" (Ibidem p.38). The idea is
      the same as Heather, even if here Wolfram gives a name to the Gothic clan.

      So far I haven't found any modern scholar who thinks differently.

      Elena Alcamesi.


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