[gothic-l] Re: Biblical Gothic
- On Mon, 29 Nov 1999, Neil Fulton wrote:
>Maybe it's true that Wulfila follows slavishly the Greek original in his
> I did a little bit of work on the subject myself once (never
> published), looking at the Gothic translations of some Greek
> relative clauses and participial phrases: basically, I found that
> the Gothic (in my small sample, at least) slavishly follows the
> Greek, except in dealing with phrases built on participles which
> the Gothic verb doesn't have, in which case it uses a relative
> clause instead. I suggested that instances like these, where
> Gothic is forced to deviate from the Greek model, might be good
> places to look for idiomatic Gothic syntax.
translation, but maybe the syntaxes of the two languages were somehow
My opinion is that Wulfila's Bible, being addressed to the common
Gothic People, had to be inteligible to this people.
Maybe the syntax of 4th century Gothic was not very far yet from the
syntax of the Greek of the same period. Both are old Indo-European
languages and thus related, including the syntax.
(Or maybe I'm wrong? Don't forget that I am only an amateur...)