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11101RE: RE: RE: RE: Translating Shakespeare

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  • anheropl0x
    Oct 22, 2013
      I know the conjugation and meaning. I was just wondering if they really were interchangeable or if there are instances where one is preferred over the other.

      ---In gothic-l@yahoogroups.com, <gothic-l@yahoogroups.com> wrote:

      Old English had two verbs which correspond to ModE 'to be', to wit, 'beon' and 'wesan'. 'Bith' is the third person sg. present indicative form of 'beon'. The latter verb was used especially to indicate a universal truth or habitual condition, or also futurity. The 'wesan'-counterpart here is 'is' (whence ModE 'is'). The full paradigm for the present indicative is:


      ic beo

      thu bist

      he bith

      we beoth

      ge beoth

      hi beoth


      ic eom

      thu eart

      he is

      we sind(on)

      ge sind(on)

      hi sind(on)

      In the example sent, 'bith' could easily be replaced with 'is', as the two forms are not mutually exclusive.


      ---In gothic-l@yahoogroups.com, <gothic-l@yahoogroups.com> wrote:

      Is biĆ¾ the exact same as is, or is it subjunctive or something? I admit, I know next to nothing about OE.
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