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Re: Gospel of Thomas not Gnostic???

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  • ErnstStrohregenmantelrad
    Now, let me answer to your points. Terje s post in >>>The Message of the Gospel is Gnostic because it discusses ultimate origin and
    Message 1 of 1 , Mar 7, 2002
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      Now, let me answer to your points.<br><br>Terje's
      post in <br><br>>>>The Message of the Gospel
      is "Gnostic" because it discusses ultimate origin
      and ultimate destiny (or rather ideal goal) as a
      return to an original order which is *not* identical
      with the world as the senses describes them; it
      discusses not salvation by the sacrifice of the blood of
      the innocent - which is the Judeo-Christian answer to
      all problems, at least at the time contemporary to
      the redaction of GTh - but by recognition<br>and
      understanding, this recognition transforms and purifies in
      itself - and brings "life eternal" (GTh: He that
      understands the meaning of these words will have life
      eternal).<<<<br><br>As I stated, I am not saying the GTh does not have
      the underlying "Gnosis" that is why I stated the
      probable originator as an "esoteric" adaptionalist. Now,
      you (Terje) stated that salvafic function by blood
      atonement by "Judeo-Christian" element was contemporary to
      the redaction of the GTh. (correct me if I
      misinterpreted) This brings up few questions. First, could you
      define "the redaction of GTh"? Redaction by whom? And
      the time of this reduction because the time reference
      you use determine the "contemporary" you talk about.
      If you mean redaction as to about the 2nd century as
      this document (GTh) was composed in its PRESENT FORM
      (which then we could also assume that the redactor was a
      "Gnostic") then what you stating I agree. But, I am not
      talking about that time. I am saying that this document
      (GTh) had much earlier origin and that time there was
      no clear "Gnostic" theology per se but what we call
      gnosis undertone. And at that time, there were no clear
      "orthodox" position. In fact, I think the blood atonement of
      "orthodox" did not come much later just as Gnostic
      speculation. You might say, in Judaism there was the notion of
      blood atonement through the idea of the scapegoat and
      Pesha etc.... But I do not think that was grafted on to
      the Christological notion in Christianity until much
      later after the death and resurrecting motif from
      Hellenistic mystery religion was incorporated into the
      mythology of Gnostics. And from there, "orthodox" took the
      mythological motif as literal and grafted the Judaic blood
      sacrifice notion.
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