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51421Re: [existlist] Re: Thought is divided

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  • Herman
    Apr 6, 2010
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      Hi Jim,

      On 6 April 2010 22:43, Jim <jjimstuart1@...> wrote:
      > Hi Polly,
      >
      > Recall, Irvin wrote this:
      >
      > "Aristotle might emphasize that freedom is the ability to acquire those dispositions necessary for virtue."
      >
      > This account of freedom says nothing about the existence of slaves in a society. So even if Aristotle did mean his account of freedom to apply only to free men and women in a society where slavery existed, I can take Aristotle's account of freedom and say it is a viable definition of freedom, which can justifiably be applied to all human beings here and now.
      >

      Well, yes, but not reasonably. Aristotle believed that it lay in "the
      nature" of slaves to be slaves, and that the possibility for freedom
      was limited to the elite. So your notion of freedom is quite
      different, unless you believe that if Aristotle arrived on the scene
      today that he would not spy anyone who was servile by nature. (He'd
      best get his eyes checked if that was the case).

      Polly




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