Re: [ematthew] Ignoring Patristic exegesis of the Lord's Prayer
- Let's try this again.
Unfortunately, we do not have the original Aramaic (assuming it
existed). So there is a difficulty in doing exegesis on that original, which is what
the Jewish Messiah taught his audiences. What we have is the prayer in
Greek form, which is the form in which it was disseminated to most 1st century
churches. Those churches, and the author of Luke, and probably the author of
Matthew, knew this prayer only in Greek.
Tertullian had Latin for his 1st language, but other early commentators
had Greek as their 1st language. And they, along with Tertullian, commented
on the prayer within the Roman Empire prior to its conversion to a
church-friendly government. That context is valuable to the commentator.
<<I appreciate the thrust of this comment, but I have my doubts about its
truth. Is Tertullian's cultural world really the same cultural world in
which the LP originated? Is the context of the way he thought about God
and the Messiah or prayer really that of Jews in 1st century Palestine
-- let alone that which informs of Matthew's and Luke's view of these
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